61. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the :
(a) Italian Constitution
(b) Canadian Constitution
(c) French Constitution
(d) Constitution of USA

38.Can a juristic person acquire citizenship under Part-II of the Constitution of India ?
(a) Yes, if the juristic person is in operation from more than 10 years in Indian territory
(b) Yes, if that had operation in pre-partition Indian territory
(c) No
(d) Yes, as per provisions of The Citizenship Act, 1955

Q.1. (b) (1) Discuss the rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside India.

20 objective questions ..

15. A corporation is "State" for the purpose of enforcement of fundamental rights if:
(a) it is a body registered according to law
(b) it is an agency or instrumentality of Government
(c) it has to report to Government
(d) the Government service rules are made applicable to its employees.

78. The Doctrine of Eclipse is in regard to Article-
(A) 105
(B) 245
(C) 246
(D) 13

14. Article 16 of the Constitution of India pertains to:

A. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth

B. Equality before law

C. Abolition of titles

D. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment

16. By the constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019, which one of the following clauses was added to Article 16 of the Constitution of India:

A. Article 16 (6)

B. Article 16 (4-B)

C. Article 16 (5)

D. None of the above

88. The phrase “Legitimate expectation” relates to which of the following legal wings :
(a) Administrative law
(b) Constitutional law
(c) Structural law
(d) None of the above

30. A citizen of India, who holds any office of profit or trust under the state cannot accept any title from any foreign State without the consent of the :
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) Council of Ministers

79. Fundamental Right conferred by Article 15(1) of the Constitution is available to-
(A) Any person
(B) Any citizen
(C) Any corporation
(D) None of the above

Q.2. Explain the concept of equality under Part III of the Constitution of India by giving reference of all the leading judgements rendered by Hon’ble Supreme court relating to the issue concerned.

Q.1. (a) Write notes in detail on following:

(1) Concept of equality and reasonable classification in the Constitution of India.

Q.1. (a) Write notes in detail on following:
(1) Concept of equality and reasonable classification in the Constitution of India.

2(B). Whether on account of marriage of a lady belonging to SC/ST category to be person of unreserved category she loses her status as SC/ST person for the purpose of grant of employment or contesting election to reserved seats, and what consideration would prevail in determining the caste status of a child born out of their wedlock? 10

14. Reservation in promotion has been permitted in relation to which Article of the Constitution of India and how has the Supreme Court explained the applicability and enforcement of the relevant law on the subject with special reference to the decisions in the cases of U.P. Power Corporation v. Rajesh Kumar and others, 2012 (7) SCC PageA and M. Nagraj and others v. Union of India, AIR 2007 SC page 71 [10]

9. (a) Critically examine the scope of reservation in promotion as provided for in Article 16 (4A) of the Constitution of India. Discuss referring to important judgments on the subject. 10

9. (b) ‘S’ born of Kshatriya father' and scheduled tribe mother claims benefit of reservation meant for scheduled tribe. Discuss referring to relevant judgments of the Hon’ble Supreme Court. 10

90. According to Article 22 (4) no detention of any person is possible without the intercession of the Advisory Board for a period exceeding :
(a) one month
(b) two months
(c) three months
(d) six months

92. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that ‘right to sleep’ is a fundamental right?
(A) Naaz Foundation Case
(B) In Re Ramlila Maiden Case
(C) Anna Hazare Case
(D) None of the above

96. The supreme court has held that prostitutes are entitled to a life of dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution. The statement is.
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Partly Correct
(D) None of the above

25. The freedom of Press in India is-
(A) available to the people under the laws of the Parliament
(B) specifically provided in the Constitution of India
(C) implied in the right of freedom of expression
(D) available to the people under executive orders.

76. The scope of expression “procedure established by law” occurring in Article 21 was expanded in the case-
(A) A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras
(B) Charanjit Lal Chowdhury Vs. Union of India
(C) K.A. Abbas Vs. Union of india
(D) Menka Gandhi Vs. Union of india

8. Article 21-A of the Constitution of India imposes burden on State to provide free and compulsory education, while Article 51-A places burden entirely on parents. Explain as to which one shall prevail and can be enforced in a Court of law. Give reasons with reference to selected authorities. 20

12.(a) Explain the provisions relating to protection and improvement of the environment in our Constitution with reference to important judgments of the Supreme Court on environmental issues? 10

12 (b) Explain the nature, scope and Extent of the liability of the polluter for environmental torts in the light of the “Polluter Pays Principle” as developed in recent Supreme Court decisions? 5

9. Discuss anyone theory developed by Hon’ble Supreme Court of India under Article 21 of the Constitution of India for compensation to the victims. 20

86. Which Article of the Constitution provide benefit to minority institutions.
(A) 19
(B) 16
(C) 15
(D) 30

1(A). What are the necessary conditions to constitute an Educational Institution as a “Minority Institution”. Discuss, in brief, in the light of relevant statutory provisions and leading authorities on the subject? 10

1 (B). Some persons constitute a Society consisting of Members of different communities and established an Educational Institution imparting education upto Secondary classes. With passage of time Society managed its affairs so as to confine its membership only to a minority community. Thereafter it resolved that hence on Educational Institution shall be a “Minority Institution” and requested State Government/ District Inspector of Schools to recognize institution as “Minority Institution”. Whether such Institution can be recognized as an “Minority Institution”? Give answer, by giving reasons, referring to relevant statutory provisions and case laws. 10

10. The Supreme Court can be moved under Article 32 of the Constitution of India for the enforcement of :
(a) Directive principles of state policy
(b) Fundamental rights
(c) Civil rights
(d) Fundamental duties

34. The concept of equal justice and free legal aid is given under Article :
(a) 14 of the Constitution of India
(b) 16 of the Constitution of India
(c) 39-A of the Constitution of India
(d) 43-A of the Constitution of India

85. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the enforcement of Uniform Civil Code.
(A) 40
(B) 45
(C) 48
(D) 44

Q.9. Write a detailed note relating to the object, scope and difference between the fundamental Rights and Directive Principles, prescribed under the Constitution of India.

12. Discuss with the relevant case law of the Apex Court with regard to the provisions of the Enforcement of the Uniform Civil Code as contained in Article 44 of the Constitution of India. 10

Q.1. (b) (3) Write short notes on following:
(b) Fundamental duties under Article 51A of the Constitution of India.

11. All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of:
A. Prime Minister of India
B. President of India
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. None of the above

56. Who of the followings cannot be removed by the Parliament?
(A) Attorney General
(B) Auditor General
(C) Election Commissioner
(D) Chief Justice of India

21. The oath is administered to the President of India by:
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) Prime Minister of India
(b) Attorney General of India (d) Chief Justice of India

27. Which of the following is not included in Electoral college for electing president?
(A) Elected members of the Rajya Sabha
(B) Elected Members of the Legislative Assembly of the State
(C) Elected Members of the Legislative Council
(D) Elected members of the Lok Sabha.

8. (a) The exercise of executive clemency is not a privilege but is based on several principles and discretion has to be exercised in public consideration. Analyse this statement in context of the powers of the President of India. 10

9. “Pardoning power of the President is not immune from judicial review”. Examine the statement with the relevant case-law. 20

80. The principle ‘Collective Responsibility’ has been incorporated in Article-
(A) 75
(B) 74
(C) 105
(D) 53

3. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority? (A) Ordinary Bill (B) Money Bill (C) Finance Bill (D) Constitution Amendment Bill

9. Which of the following sets of bills is presented to the parliament along with budget?
(A) Direct taxes and indirect taxes bill
(B) Contingency bill and Appropriation bill
(C) Finance bill and Appropriation bill
(D) Finance bill and Contingency bill

8. (b) The Rajya Sabha after passing a Bill sends the same to the Lok Sabha for getting it to be passed. Before the Bill could be taken up for consideration, the Lok Sabha was dissolved and was thereafter again constituted. Whether the Bill can be taken up and passed by the Lok Sabha ? Refer to constitutional provisions also. 10

24. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court struck down that legislators cannot be disqualified on his conviction in a criminal case if he/she files an appeal in the appropriate court:
(A) Golaknath V. State of Punjab
(B) Keshvananda Bharti Vs. State of Punjab
(C) Sankari Prasad Vs. UOI
(D) Lily Thomas Vs. Union Bank of India

29. Members of Legislative Bodies enjoy privilege of exemption from arrest or detention in prison-
(A) only under Civil process and during the continuance of a joint sit ing/ meeting/ conference or joint committee of Houses of Parliament or Houses of State Legislature as the case may be and during 40 days before and after such sitting/ meeting/ comference
(B) under Civil as well as Criminal process and as all times save with the permission of the Speaker or the Chairperson as the case may be.
(C) under Civil as well as Criminal process but only when the house is in session
(D) do not enjoy any such exemption.

20. The special provisions to Finance Bills is provided under the Constitution of India in:

(a) Article 114 (b) Article 115
(c) Article 116 (d) Article 117

56. Vote on account means :
(a) Vote on the report of CAG
(b) Appropriating funds pending pasting of budget
(c) Passage of bills to meet unforeseen expenditure
(d) Bill for initiation of budget

57. Who allows the introduction of the Finance Bill?
(A) President
(B) Finance minister
(C) Prime minister
(D) Speaker

2(C). An Ordinance was promulgated by the President and lapsed with passage of time or ceased since it could not be replaced by an Act of Parliament or disapproved by Parliament. Ordinance had abolished certain posts in Government service, as a result whereof holders of such posts stood terminated. Whether such posts shall stand restored and persons who were terminated would be entitled for restoration of their service since Ordinance has. lapsed/ceased and not replaced by an Act of Parliament or disapproved? Give your answer with reasons, relevant statutory provision and case law, if any. 10

10. (b) Point out the contingencies under which the President may promulgate Ordinances. Discuss the limitation on this power. 10

95. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that the law declared by the Supreme Court of India shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India?
(a) Article 141 (b) Article 139-A
(c) Article 140 (d) Article 142

50. Puisne judge of a Supreme Court means.
(A) A judge of inferior scale
(B) An additional judge
(C) An associate judge
(D) An adhoc judge

22. Special Leave to Appeal under Article 136 of the Constitution of India may be granted by Supreme Court-
(A) only against the orders and judgments of the High courts
(B) from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order under any cause or matter passed or made by any court or Tribunal in territory of India
(C) against any appellate order or judgment passed by the Courts or Tribunal in India
(D) against the order or judgment of the High Court passed only in Public Interest Litigation.

23. Which jurisdiction of the Supreme Court has been dealt with in Article 143 of the Constitution of India?
(A) Appellate
(B) Writ
(C) Original
(D) None of the above

24. The prohibition regarding discussion in Parliament with regard to conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of the High Court in discharge of his duties is contained in Article-
(A) 121
(B) 211
(C) 124
(D) None of the above .

10. (a) There are many provisions in the Constitution of India which secures independence and impartiality of the judiciary. Discuss those provisions and refer to important judgments of the Hon’ble Supreme Court. 10

13. As per Article 156(3) of the Constitution of India:
A. Governor shall hold office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office
B. Prime Minister of India shall hold office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office
C. Vice President of India shall hold office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office
D. Chief Justice of India shall hold office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office

51. As per clause (3) of Article 166 of the Constitution of India, the Governor shall make:
(a) Rules to regulate service conditions of civil servants
(b) Rules to make necessary inquiry relating to conduct of the members of State Legislative Assembly
(c) Rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the State
(d) None of the above

30. How many members can be nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor?
(A) 1/6th
(B) 1/12th
(C) 1/3rd
(D) 1/9th

18. The Legislative Council of a State should not exceed of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that State :
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/3
(c) 1/4 (d) 1/5

10. A peon working in a High Court may be dismissed from service without holding any inquiry as prescribed under Article 311 of the Constitution of India , where the:
A. Governor of Uttar Pradesh exercising powers conferred by the proviso to Article 233
B. Chief Justice of Allahabad High Court invoking powers under Article 235 of the Constitution of India
C. Governor of Uttar Pradesh invoking powers under Article 258-A of the Constitution of India
D. None of the above

56. The correct number of High Courts in India is :
(a) 24 (b) 25
(c) 33 (d) 27

35. Can a distinguished jurist, who neither remained an Advocate nor a Judicial Officer, be appointed as a Judge of Allahabad High Court:
(a) No
(b) Yes, if the collegium of Judges of Allahabad High Court recommends for that
(c) Yes, by the President of India after consultation with Chief Justice of India
(d) Yes, if the collegium of Supreme Court Judges recommends for that

86. If any question arises as to the age of a Judge of a High Court, the question shall be decided by :
(a) Chief Justice of India after consulting the Governor of the State
(b) President after consulting the Chief Justice of High Court of concerned High Court
(c) Chief Justice of High Court concerned after consulting the Governor of | the state.
(d) President after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

4(b) Discuss the power available to the High Court to transfer of certain cases pending before a court subordinate to High Court.

12(b) Appointment of Retired Judges as seats of High Courts.

Q.1. (b) (2) Whether extension of jurisdiction of Punjab and Haryana High court to the Union Territories of Chandigarh is valid, if yes, then under which provision of the Constitution of India?

9. Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service Rules, 1975 have been enacted by the:
A. Governor of Uttar Pradesh exercising powers conferred by the proviso to Article 233 of the Constitution of India
B. Chief Justice of Allahabad High Court invoking powers under Article 235 of the Constitution of India
C. Governor of Uttar Pradesh invoking powers under Article 258-A of the Constitution of India
D. None of the above

39. The Provisions for appointment to District Judges are prescribed in :
(a) Part-VI Chapter V of the Constitution of India
(b) Part-VI Chapter VI of the Constitution of India
(c) Part-Ill of the Constitution of India
(d) Part-V Chapter VI of the Constitution of India

26. The District Judge can be given power to issue prerogative writs by-
(A) order of Supreme Court under Article 141 of the Constitution of India
(B) Executive Orders issued by the Governor in consultation with the High Court under Article 162 of the Constitution of India.
(C) the Parliament by law under Article 32 of the Constitution of India.
(D) the High Court by a decision of Full Court.

Q.12. Write short notes on following:
(a) Appointment of District Judges as per Article 233 of the Constitution of India.

13. What is the scope and extent of control of the High Court over the subordinate judiciary as understood under Article 235 of the Constitution of India. 10

7. Part IX-A relating to Municipalities was inserted in the Constitution of India by the:
A. Constitution (Seventy-fourth Amendment)Act, 1992
B. Constitution (Seventy-first Amendment)Act, 1992
C. Constitution (Forty-second Amendment)Act, 1976
D. None of the above

1(b) The Scheduled and Tribunal Areas under Part X of the constitution of India.

2(A). Explain relations between the Union and the States in legislative matters with reference to various Articles of the Constitution. 10

10. (a) Explain the doctrine of “Pith and Substance” in relation to distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and the State. 10

87. The Finance Commission gives recommendations to President as to :
(a) distribution of net proceeds of taxes between Union and States
(b) principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States of the Consolidated Funds of India
(c) measures needed to augment the Consolidated Funds of a State to supplement
the resources of Panchayats and Municipalities
(d) all the above

10. Explain the constitutional requirements as to the manner in which contracts may be made in exercise of the executive power of the Union or the States in India? 15

48. No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. It is:
A. Fundamental Right
B. Directive Principle of such policy
C. Constitutional Rights
D. All the above

54. No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. It is:
(a) Fundamental Right (b) Directive Principle of such policy
(c) Constitutional Rights (d) All the above

10. (b) In order to ensure availability of timber to the common man at a reasonable rate, the State of U.P. declared timber as an essential commodity and imposed a total ban on the movement of timber from Uttar Pradesh to any other area outside the State. The total ban is challenged as violative of Article 301 of the Constitution. Decide. 10

33. Part XIV of the Constitution of India relates to :
(a) Elections
(b) Special provision relating to certain classes
(c) Service under the Union and the States
(d) None from the above

Q.1. (a) Write notes in detail on following:
(2) Concept of services in Part XIV of the Constitution of India.

81. Constitutional safeguards to civil servants have been given in Article-
(A) 311
(B) 300
(C) 44
(D) None of the above

Q.10. Article 311 of the Constitution of India has a check to the pleasure available to the President of India and the Governors of the states as per Article 310 of the Constitution of India.

11. “Doctrine of Pleasure in relation to Civil Servants has been largely watered down by the specific constitutional safeguards guaranteed by the Constitution”. Discuss in the light of the constitutional provisions and decided cases. 15

22. The Chairman and Members of the Union Public Service Commission are appointed by :
(a) The Cabinet (b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India (d) The President of India

15. Whether the powers under Article 323-A of the Constitution of India can be exercised by appropriate legislature to constitute Administrative Tribunal:
A. Yes
B. Yes, if the Tribunal is to be constituted for adjudication of the matters relating to the State service
C. No
D. Yes, if the Tribunal is made for adjudication of service matters relating to educational disputes.

40. The establishment of the Central Administrative Tribunal is in consonance with the provisions of:
(a) Article 323-B of the Constitution of India
(b) Article 323-A of the Constitution of India
(c) Article 315 of the Constitution of India
(d) Article 320 of the Constitution of India

Q.1. Write short notes

(a) Tribunals under part XIV-A of the Constitution of India.

Q.1. (b) (3) Write short notes on following:
(a) Establishment of Tribunals as per provisions of Article 323-B of the Constitution of India.

52. A commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes within the territory of India and the difficulties under which they labour and to make recommendations as to the steps that should be taken by the Union of India to remove such difficulties to improve their conditions can be made by the President of India as per:
(a) Article 335 of the Constitution of India
(b) Article 348 of the Constitution of India
(c) Article 340 of the Constitution of India
(d) Article 16 of the Constitution of India

53. Which one is the correct answer:
(a) As per Article 332 of the Constitution of India, sea ts shall be reserved for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, except Scheduled Tribes in the autonomous districts of Assam in the Legislative Assembly of every State
(b) As per Article 332 of the Constitution of India, seats shall be reserved for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Parliament
(c) As per Article 332 of the Constitution of India, seats shall be reserved for the Panchayat Raj Institutions
(d) All the above

4(c) Discuss the powers of the president of India for appointment of a Commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes and also the authority available to such Commission under the Constitution of India.

1. Discuss the provisions relating to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Backward Classes and women in the Constitution of India with their object and purpose. 20

Q.4. Answer the following:

(a) Discuss the provisions relating to language of the Supreme Court of India and High courts as prescribed under the Constitution of India.

2. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbance?
(A) Article 215
(B) Article 275
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 355

25. During operation of proclamation of emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India, the enforcement of Fundamental Rights can be suspended except Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Articles-
(A) 14 & 19
(B) 15 & 21A
(C) 20 & 21
(D) None of the above

77. Scope of Article 356 was examined in the case-
(A) S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India
(B) Sankari Prasad Vs. Union of India
(C) Minerva Mills Ltd. Vs. Union of India
(D) U.N.R. Rao Vs. Indira Gandhi

10. The framers of the Indian Constitution felt that in an emergency the Centre should have overriding powers to control and direct all aspects of administration and legislation throughout the country. Explain referring to various constitutional provisions. 20

12. In which of the following cases, Supreme Court of India held that secularism is the basic feature of the Constitution of India:
A. M. Nagaraj and others Versus Union of India and others; AIR 2007 SC 71
B. V.K. Sasikala Versus State; AIR 2013 SC 613
C. S.R. Bommai and others Versus Union of India and others; AIR 1994 SC 1918
D. None of the above

89. Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced by following Constitutional Amendment :
fa) Constitution One Hundredth Amendment Act 2016
(b) Constitution One Hundred and First .Amendment Act 2016
(c) Constitunon Ninety-ninth .Amendment Act, 2016
(d) Constitution One Hundred and Second Amendment Act 2016

23. Which amendment act of the constitution reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years.
(A) Sixtieth Amendment 1988
(B) Sixty-First Amendment 1989
(C) Sixty-Second Amendment 1990
(D) Sixty-Third Amendment 1990

48. The preamble to the Constitution of India was first amended vide.
(A) Constitution 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(B) Constitution 24th Amendment Act, 1971
(C) Constitution 75th Amendment Act, 1993
(D) Constitution 77th Amendment Act, 1995

Q.1. (a) Write notes in detail on following:
(3) Power of parliament to amend the Constitution and procedure therefor.

9. Explain the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution of India? Refer to landmark decisions of the Supreme Court on the above subject.? 15

8. Article 371 of the Constitution of India provides special provision with respect to the States of:
A. Nagaland and Manipur
B. Mizoram and Nagaland
C. Meghalaya and Tripura
D. Maharashtra and Gujarat

37. Article 371 of the Constitution of India prescribes :
(a) Special provisions with respect to the States of Maharashtra and Guiarat
(b) Special Provisions with respect to the State of Nagaland
(c) Special provisions with respect to the State of Manipur
(d) Temporary provisions with respect to the State of Jammu Sc Kashmir

55. VII th Schedule of the Constitution of India contains :
(a) State list only
(b) Union list only
(c) Concurrent list only
(d) State list, Union list and Concurrent list all

36. The Tenth Schedule was appended with the Constitution of India:
(a) By the Constitution (Fifty-Second Amendment) Act, 1985
(b) By the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976
(c) By the Constitutiion (Thirty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1975
(d) By none from the above

22. Which of the following is not in the State List under the Constitution of India?
(a) Education
(b) Public health
(c) Betting and Gambling
(d) Agriculture

57. Mark the Correct Statement in relation to Anti-Defection Law :
(a) The Speaker/Chairman is to decide questions of disqualification of a Member of Parliament but the decision is amenable to judicial review.
(b) When a nominated member joins a political party after 6 months he is not liable to be disqualified.
(c) An independent member can join a political party after election without incurring the risk of disqualification.
(d) None of the above

49. The Eight Schedule of the Constitution of India provides for
(A) Panchayat Raj
(B) Anti Defection
(C) Validation of certain Acts and Regulations
(D) Official Languages

28. 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India contains-
(A) powers, authorities and responsibilities of the municipalities endowed to it by State Legislature
(B) powers, authorities and responsibilities of Panchayat endowed to it by Parliament
(C) powers, authorities and responsibilities which any local Government can exercise.
(D) powers, authorities and responsibilities endowed to Panchayat by State Legislature.

Q.3. Explain the circumstances in which 9th Schedule was added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act,1951.

25. ‘Doctrine of unjust enrichment" was laid down by the Supreme Court in which one of the following cases?
(A) Sarla Mudgal V. Union of India
(B) Mafatlal Industries Ltd. Vs. Union of India
(C) S.R. Bommai Vs. Union of India
(D) Unni Krishnan Vs. State of A.P.

90. In which of the following recent cases did the constitution bench of the Supreme Court hold that Indian Courts have no jurisdiction over arbitral awards seated outside of India?
(A) Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading
(B) Bharat Aluminium Co. V Kaiser Aluminium Technical Service
(C) Standard Chartered Bank V. HSBC
(D) None of the above

93. Which of the fundamental rights was amended by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 which got the President’s assent on 12th January, 2012?
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Freedom
(C) Right to Life
(D) None of the above

1(c) The Co-operative Societies under Part IX-B of the Constitution of India.

Q.11. Write a detailed note on the provisions relating to the Cooperative Societies under the Constitution of India.