1. Which is the correct meaning of word ‘embargo’?
(A) landing place
(B) prohibition
(C) disease of eye
(D) cargo
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
2. An agreement enforceable by law at the instance of one or more of the parties and not of other or others under Section 2(i) of the Indian Contract Act is called-
(A) a valid contract
(B) an illegal contract
(C) a void contract
(D) a voidable contract
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
3. Claim for necessaries of life supplied to a minor under Section 68 of the Indian Contract Act-
(A) cannot be enforced at all
(B) can be enforced against the minor personally on attaining majority
(C) can be enforced against the minor’s property or estate
(D) can be enforced against the guardian, if any, of the minor
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
4. An act, to be called on ‘act of firm’, within the meaning of section 2(a) of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 is-
(A) every act of the partners
(B) only such acts which give rise to a enforceable by or against the firm
(C) such acts which do not give rise to a right enforceable by or against the firm
(D) either (A) or (B) or (C)
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
5. Which of the following is a valid partnership?
(A) partnership between two partnership firm
(B) partnership between one partnership firm and an individual
(C) partnership between individual members of one firm and the individual members of another firm
(D) neither (A) nor (B) nor (C)
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
6. Easement is a right-
(A) in rem
(B) in personam
(C) neither (A) nor (B)
(D) in rem in general but in personam in exceptional cases
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
7. Damages awarded for tortuous liabilities are-
(A) liquidated
(B) unliquidated
(C) penal
(D) none of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
8. Defamation by spoken words or gestures is known as-
(A) Innuendo
(B) Slander
(C) Libel
(D) None of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
9. The principle ‘facts speak for themselves’ is expressed by the maxim-
(A) Ubi jus ibi remedium
(B) Res ipsa Loquitur
(C) Novus Actus Interveniens
(D) Causa Causams
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
10. The liability of a master for acts of his servant in Law of Torts is called-
(A) Absolute liability
(B) Tortious liability
(C) Vicarious liability
(D) None of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
11. You have to identify the particular Section of Transfer of Property Act to which the following quotation relates:
“where a granter has purported to grant an interest in land which he did not at the time possesses, but subsequently acquires, the benefit of his subsequent acquisition, goes automatically to the earlier grantee, or as it is usually expressed, feeds the estoppal.”
(A) Section 40
(B) Section 41
(C) Section 42
(D) None of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
12. Section 53a of the transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with-
(A) fraudulent transfer
(B) transfer by ostensible owner
(C) part performance
(D) None of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
13. Determination of lease is dealt with under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 in-
(A) Section 108
(B) Section 107
(C) Section 113
(D) Section 111
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
14. Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 imposes a prohibition on transfer or otherwise dealing of an property during the pendency of a suit, provided the conditions laid down in section are satisfied. The statement is:
(A) false
(B) true
(C) partly true
(D) None of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
15. The definition of ‘Sale’ is contained in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 in Section-
(A) 105
(B) 100
(C) 54
(D) None of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
16. What would be the status of a lessee of an immovable property on the expiry of a fixed term lease, if he continues in possession?
(A) Unauthorised occupant
(B) Tenant of holding over
(C) Tenant of sufferance
(D) Licensee
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
17. Which of the following is not a condition for a valid gift of immovable property?
(A) Registered instrument signed by on behalf of the doner
(B) Consideration
(C) Attestation by at least two witnesses
(D) Acceptance of gift by donee during the lifetime of the doner
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
18. X, an owner of house at Aligarh, left Aligarh in the year 1970 after appointing Y as its care taker to look after the house. Y starts living in the said house with the knowledge of X. X brings an action in the year 2005 against Y for delivery of possession of the house in question. Y takes the plea that (1) the suit is barred by time and (2) he has perfected the title by adverse possession. State whether-
(A) suit is barred by time
(B) Y has perfected his title by adverse possession
(C) Y is liable to succeed on both the pleas (1) and (2)
(D) None of the above pleas is sustainable
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
19. The marriage may be solemnized between two Hindus if-
(A) bridegroom completes the age of 21 and bride completes 18 years
(B) bridegroom completes the age of 18 and bride completes 21 years
(C) bridegroom completes the age of 21 and bride completes 21 years
(D) bridegroom completes the age of 18 and bride completes 18 years
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
20. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955-
(A) Does not prescribe the ceremonies requisite for solemnization of marriage but leaves it to the parties to choose a form of ceremonial marriage which is in accordance with any custom or usage applicable to either party
(B) Does not prescribe the ceremonies requisite nor leaves it to the parties to choose
(C) Does prescribe the ceremonies and does not leave it to the parties to choose
(D) Does prescribe the ceremonies and at the same time leaves it to the parties to choose
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
21. Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 confers legitimacy on the children of-
(A) a void marriage
(B) a voidable marriage
(C) a valid marriage
(D) both void and voidable marriages
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
22. A Talaq can be effected-
(A) orally by spoken words
(B) in writing
(C) only (A) and not (B)
(D) either (A) or (B)
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
23. For a valid Muslim marriage-
(A) offer and acceptance must be at the same time
(B) offer and acceptance must be at the same place
(C) offer and acceptance must be at the same time and place
(D) offer and acceptance may be at different times and at different place
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
24. A Muslim can divorce his wife-
(A) whenever he so desires without assigning any cause
(B) whenever he so desires but only with a cause
(C) whenever he so desires without assigning any cause but only in the presence of the wife
(D) either (B) or (C)
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
25. During operation of proclamation of emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India, the enforcement of Fundamental Rights can be suspended except Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Articles-
(A) 14 & 19
(B) 15 & 21A
(C) 20 & 21
(D) None of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
26. In execution of a decree a movable property is auction sold by the executing court. The auction purchaser deposits the entire auction price then and there even before expiry of 30 days and takes the delivery of the auctioned property. An objection complaining that the auction was conducted with material irregularity is filed within 30 days from the date of auction. State which one of the following is legally correct?
(A) Objection is maintainable as it has been filed within 30 days of the auction
(B) Auction sale is vitiated as the auction property has been delivered without waiting for its confirmation within 30 days of auction
(C) No confirmation of sale is required in the present case
(D) None of the above is correct
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
27. In a miscellaneous appeal arising out of a pending suit defendant appealant dies and an application for substitution is filed and allowed. Appeal is decided three years thereafter. Subsequently, when the suit is taken up, an objection that the suit has abated as no application to substitute the heirs of the deceased was filed therein within the prescribed period, is raised from the side of the defendant. Suggest the stand legally open to such plaintiff?
(A) Plaintiff may apply for substitution with an application for condonation of delay
(B) Information of death of defendant was not given to the trial court, therefore, shelter of Order 22 Rule 10 CPC may be invoked
(C) Record of the trial court was in appeal and thus, the plaintiff was prevented by sufficient cause in not filing the substitution application earlier
(D) The substitution allowed in miscellaneous appeal would ensure in the suit also and application for substitution is not required as the heirs are on the record
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
28. Whether the following proposition is legally correct or not?
“The principle so far as it relates to the amendment of plaint is equally applicable to the amendment of written statement. By way of amendment in plaint a time barred plea cannot be allowed to be raised so also in the case of written statement.”
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
(C) Partially correct
(D) None of the above is applicable
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
29. In which of the following case, the plaint will be ordered to be returned for presentation to the proper court:
(A) The plaintiff frames his suit in a manner not warranted by the facts and goes for his relief to a court which cannot grant him
(B) The plaintiff chooses a wrong court in respect of territorial limits
(C) The plaintiff chooses a wrong court in respect of pecuniary limits
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
30. Which of the following is a leading case on the exclusion of the jurisdiction of civil courts?
(A) Dhulabhai V. State of M.P.
(B) Gundaji V. Ramchandra
(C) Noor Mohd. Khan V. Fakirappa
(D) All of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
REVENUE CODE ->
CH VIII MANAGEMENT OF LAND OTHER PROPERTIES BY GRAM PANCHAYAT OR OTHER LOCAL AUTHORITY
Edit
31. Who is authority competent to issue notice to evict and realize damages from a person who has damaged or misappropriated or found in occupation of a Gaon Sabha land unauthorizedly?
(A) Land Management Committee
(B) Lekhpal of the circle
(C) Assistant Collector concern
(D) Collector
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
32. Under the U.P. Zamindari Abolition and Reforms Act, 1950 at present classes of tenure are-
(A) Bhumidhar, Sirdar, Adhivasi and Asami
(B) Bhumidhar with transferable right and Bhumidhar with non transferable rights
(C) Bhumidhari with transferable rights, Bhumidhar with non transferable rights, Asami and Government lessee
(D) Bhumidhari with transferable rights, Bhumidhar with non transferable rights & Asami
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
33. Which amongst the following is not exempted from operation of U.P. Urban Buildings (Regulation of Letting Rent & Eviction) Act, 1972?
(A) Any building of which the Government or a local authority or a public sector corporation or a Cantonment Board is landlord
(B) Any building belonging to or vested in a recognized educational institutional
(C) Any building of which the Government or a local authority or a public sector corporation or a cantonment Board is the tenant
(D) Any building, whose monthly rent exceeds two thousand rupees
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
34. Which amongst the following is not a ground under section 20 of the U.P. Urban Building (Regulation of Letting Rent & Eviction) Act, 1972 for instituting a suit for eviction?
(A) That the tenant is in arrears of rent for not less than four months, and has failed to pay the same to the landlord within one month from the date of service upon him of a notice of demand
(B) That the tenant has without the permission in writing of the landlord made or permitted to be made any such construction or structural alteration in the building as is likely to diminish its value or utility or the disfigure it
(C) That the tenant without the permission of the landlord allowed one of his relatives to live with him in the tenanted accommodation
(D) That the tenant has sub-let, in contraventions of the provisions of section 25, as the case may be, of the old Act the whole or any part of the building
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
35. Amongst the following which is not a ground for release of a building under Section 21 of the U.P. Urban Building (Regulation of Letting Rent & Eviction) Act, 1972?
(A) That the building is bonafide required either in its existing form or after demolition and new construction by the landlord for occupation himself or any member of his family for residential purpose
(B) That the building is bonafide required either in its existing form or after demolition and new construction by the landlord for occupation himself or any member of his family for purposes of any profession, trade or calling
(C) In case of a residential building for occupation for business purposes
(D) That the building is in a dilapidated condition and is required for purposes of demolition and new construction
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
36. The President of a Municipal Board on charges can be removed by which amongst the following?
(A) The Municipal Board by simple majority
(B) By the electorate who elected the president by simple majority
(C) By the State Government
(D) By the Commissioner of the Division
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
37. Which amongst the following is correct process for removal of the Pradhan of a Gaon Sabha?
(A) The Pradhan can be removed by majority of the villagers
(B) The Pradhan can be removed by majority of the members of the Gram Sabha
(C) The Pradhan can be removed by the majority of two-third of the members of the Gaon Sabha present and voting
(D) By an order passed by District Deputy Collector
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
38. Upon the publication of the notification under Sub-section (2) of Section 4 of the U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953, no tenure holder shall use his holding or any part therefore for purposes not connected with agriculture, horticulture or animal husbandry including pisciculture and poultry farming except with the permission in writing of-
(A) Consolidation officer
(B) Deputy Director of Consolidation
(C) Settlement Officer of Consolidation
(D) Consolidation Commissioner
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
39. In proceedings under the U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 which provisions amongst the following is not applicable-
(A) Section 5 of the Indian Limitation Act
(B) Chapter IX and X of U.P. Land Revenue Act, 1901
(C) Order XXI of Civil Procedure code
(D) Section 196 of Indian Penal Code
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
40. The authority competent to grant permission for development of land in a development area under U.P. Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973 is-
(A) Development Authority
(B) Chairman of the Development Authority
(C) Vice-Chairman of the Development Authority
(D) State Government
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
41. Which amongst the following cannot be levied by a Development Authority?
(A) Mutation charges
(B) Water fees
(C) Fee on carrying a trade or business in a development area
(D) Betterment charges
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
42. When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all-
(A) each of such person is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone
(B) each of such person is liable for his own overt act
(C) each of such person shall liable according to the extent of his participation in the crime
(D) both (B) and (C)
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
43. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ go to murder ‘Z’. ‘X’ stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit ‘Z’ at all. ‘Y’ killed ‘Z’.
(A) only ‘Y’ is liable for murder of ‘Z’
(B) ‘X’ and ‘Y’ both are liable for murder of ‘Z’
(C) ‘X’ is not liable as he did not perform overt act
(D) both (A) and (C)
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
44. Section 76 of IPC provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is or who by reason of-
(A) Mistake of fact in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
(B) Mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
(C) Mistake of fact believes himself to be bound by morals to do it
(D) All the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
45. Which Section of IPC has been declared unconstitutional and violative of Article 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India?
(A) Section 314
(B) Section 301
(C) Section 303
(D) Section 306
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
46. For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal liability, the intoxication-
(A) can be self administered
(B) administered against his will or knowledge
(C) should not be self administered
(D) All the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
47. In a case of free fight between two parties-
(A) right of private defence is available to both the parties
(B) right of private defence is available to individuals against individual
(C) no right of private defence is available to either party
(D) right of private defence is available only to one party
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
48. For proving an offence under Section 307 of IPC-
(A) intention to commit murder has to be proved
(B) causing of grievous hurt is to be proved
(C) use of lethal weapon is to be proved
(D) actual injury is to be proved
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
49. Preparation to commit murder is-
(A) punishable
(B) not punishable
(C) punishable with fine
(D) All the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
50. Preparation to commit dacoity is a -
(A) punishable offence
(B) not punishable offence
(C) no offence
(D) None of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
51. For an offence of cheating, intention to cheat should be present-
(A) in the end
(B) in the middle
(C) Both the above
(D) from the very beginning
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
52. LTTE (Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam) leader who was killed by Srilankan Army?
(A) P.Prabhakaran
(B) S.Prabhakaran
(C) T.Prabhakaran
(D) V.Prabhakaran
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
53. IPL-2009 was held in-
(A) South Africa
(B) England
(C) Australia
(D) India
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
54. Dacoit who was killed in encounter in June, 2009 in district Chitrakoot was-
(A) Dadua
(B) Malkhan Kewat
(C) Ghanshyam Kewat
(D) Tokia mallah
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
55. The words “SATYAMEVA JAYATE” in the State Emblem of India have been adopted from which of the followings:
(A) Brahma Upnishad
(B) Mudgala Upnishad
(C) Maitriyi Upnishad
(D) Mundakopanishad
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
56. Who of the followings cannot be removed by the Parliament?
(A) Attorney General
(B) Auditor General
(C) Election Commissioner
(D) Chief Justice of India
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
57. Who allows the introduction of the Finance Bill?
(A) President
(B) Finance minister
(C) Prime minister
(D) Speaker
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
58. The largest revenue in India is obtained from-
(A) Railways
(B) Excise Duty
(C) Sales Tax
(D) Direct Tax
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
59. Where is the headquarter of Reserve Bank of India situated?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Delhi
(C) Kolkata
(D) Ahmedabad
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
60. Whose name was announced for the Bharat Ratna Award in 2008?
(A) Pandit Ravi Shanker
(B) Tapan Sinha
(C) M.S. Subba Laxmi
(D) Pandit Bhimsen Joshi
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
61. How many times in a year does an equinox take place?
(A) once
(B) twice
(C) thrice
(D) None of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
62. When does lunar eclipse take place?
(A) Moon comes in between Earth and Sun
(B) Sun comes in between Moon and Earth
(C) Earth comes in between Moon and Sun
(D) None of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
63. How many Oscar awards did the movie “Slumdog Millionaire” get?
(A) 9
(B) 11
(C) 8
(D) 10
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
64. The Britisher who abolished the practice of “SATI” is-
(A) Lord Cornwallis
(B) Lord Edwin Montague
(C) Lord Mountbatten
(D) Lord William Bentinck
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
65. Which is the classical dance of Kerala?
(A) Mohiniaattam
(B) Kathakali
(C) Kuchipudi
(D) Manipuri
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
66. What is the period of the 11th Five Year Plan?
(A) 2005-2010
(B) 2006-2011
(C) 2008-2013
(D) 2007-2012
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
67. The correct translation into English of Hindi word ‘क्षमता’ is-
(A) capacity
(B) ability
(C) competency
(D) efficiency
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
68. The correct translation into English of Hindi word ‘पात्रता" is-
(A) qualified
(B) eligibility
(C) educated
(D) suitability
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
69. The correct translation into English of Hindi word ‘निर्देश" is-
(A) order
(B) direction
(C) instruction
(D) guidance
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
70. The correct translation into Hindi of English word ‘approval’ is-
(A) स्वीकृति
(B) अनुमोदन
(C) अनुमति
(D) आदेश
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
71. Which is the correct meaning of word ‘fallacy’?
(A) primitive poem
(B) barren field
(C) good omen
(D) mistaken idea
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
72. The correct translation into English of Hindi word ‘निर्भीकता" is-
(A) bravery
(B) courage
(C) valour
(D) boldness
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
73. The correct translation into English of Hindi word ‘अस्वीकृति" is-
(A) dismissal
(B) rejection
(C) return back
(D) None of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
74. The correct translation into Hindi of English word ‘Estimate’ is-
(A) अनुमान
(B) प्राक्कलन
(C) फार्मूला
(D) ब्योरा
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
75. The correct translation into Hindi of English word ‘Probable’ is-
(A) संभव
(B) संभाव्य
(C) अनुमानित
(D) एक मुहावरा
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
76. The scope of expression “procedure established by law” occurring in Article 21 was expanded in the case-
(A) A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras
(B) Charanjit Lal Chowdhury Vs. Union of India
(C) K.A. Abbas Vs. Union of india
(D) Menka Gandhi Vs. Union of india
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
77. Scope of Article 356 was examined in the case-
(A) S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India
(B) Sankari Prasad Vs. Union of India
(C) Minerva Mills Ltd. Vs. Union of India
(D) U.N.R. Rao Vs. Indira Gandhi
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
78. The Doctrine of Eclipse is in regard to Article-
(A) 105
(B) 245
(C) 246
(D) 13
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
79. Fundamental Right conferred by Article 15(1) of the Constitution is available to-
(A) Any person
(B) Any citizen
(C) Any corporation
(D) None of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
80. The principle ‘Collective Responsibility’ has been incorporated in Article-
(A) 75
(B) 74
(C) 105
(D) 53
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
81. Constitutional safeguards to civil servants have been given in Article-
(A) 311
(B) 300
(C) 44
(D) None of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
82. Section 114 Evidence Act applies to-
(A) admissibility of facts
(B) relevancy of facts
(C) relevancy of opinions
(D) legal presumptions
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
83. The Indian Evidence Act applies to-
(A) proceedings before tribunals
(B) affidavits presented to any court or officer
(C) proceedings before an arbitrator
(D) None of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
84. Confessions made while in custody of police are-
(A) irrelevant
(B) admissible
(C) inadmissible
(D) relevant
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
85. Opinion of Experts is relevant under-
(A) Section 45 of Evidence Act
(B) Section 46 of Evidence Act
(C) Both the above
(D) None of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
86. Leading questions can generally be asked in-
(A) Examination in chief
(B) re-examination
(C) cross examination
(D) All the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
87. A is accused of B’s murder. Which of the following will be a ‘relevant fact’?
(A) A’s going to field with a club
(B) A’s saying shortly before the incident that he will take a revenge of his father’s death
(C) A’s fleeing before the police arrived at village
(D) All of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
88. Test Identification Parade under Section 9 of Evidence Act should be taken by whom?
(A) Magistrate
(B) Police officer not below the rank of Sub-inspector
(C) Any person
(D) All of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
89. Which of the following is relevant and may be received in evidence?
(A) Tape recordings
(B) Dog-tracking
(C) Narco analysis test
(D) All of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
Code of Criminal Procedure ->
CHAPTER XXIV GENERAL PROVISIONS AS TO INQUIRIES AND TRIALS Ss. 300 - 327
Edit
90. “Accused statement under Section 313 Cr.P.C. is to be recorded on oath”-
(A) above statement is true
(B) above statement is false
(C) above statement is partially true
(D) None of above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
Code of Criminal Procedure ->
CHAPTER XXIV GENERAL PROVISIONS AS TO INQUIRIES AND TRIALS Ss. 300 - 327
Edit
91. For summoning an accused under Section 319 Cr.P.C.-
(A) statement under 161 Cr.P.C. is relevant
(B) statement on oath in the trial is relevant
(C) both the above statements are relevant
(D) None of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
Code of Criminal Procedure ->
CHAPTER XIII JURISDICTION OF THE CRIMINAL COURTS IN INQUIRIES AND TRIALS
Edit
92. Ordinarily place of trial is-
(A) where the offence has been committed
(B) where the victim resides
(C) where the accused resides
(D) where the FIR is lodged
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
Code of Criminal Procedure ->
CHAPTER XII INFORMATION TO THE POLICE AND THEIR POWERS TO INVESTIGATE
Edit
93. Statement under Section 161 of Cr.P.C. can be used to-
(A) corroborate the statement in court
(B) corroborate and contradict statement in court
(C) contradict the statement in court
(D) can not be utilized for any purpose
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
94. Before being summoned, the accused has got a right to-
(A) participate in the proceeding
(B) no right to participate in the proceeding
(C) has no right at all
(D) can watch the proceedings but can not participate
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
Code of Criminal Procedure ->
CHAPTER XXIV GENERAL PROVISIONS AS TO INQUIRIES AND TRIALS Ss. 300 - 327
Edit
95. Inquiry is conducted by a Magistrate with a view to-
(A) find out a prima-facie case
(B) convict the accused
(C) authorize remand of the accused
(D) release the accused under Section 436
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
96. Warrant case means a case-
(A) in which a police officer can not arrest without warrant
(B) in which the court, in the first instance, shall issue a warrant of arrest against the accused
(C) relating to an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years
(D) relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
97. When can a trial court release an accused on bail under Section 389(3) of Cr.P.C. after conviction?
(A) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 3 years
(B) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 5 years
(C) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 7 years
(D) Where offence is exclusively bailable whether accused is on bail or not
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
98. Time prescribed for filing which of the followings cannot be extended or condoned by applying provisions of Section 5 of the Limitation Act?
(A) Revision under Section 115 C.P.C.
(B) Application for execution under Order XXI C.P.C.
(C) Appeal under Section 96, 100 and 104 C.P.C.
(D) Application for substitution under Order XXII C.P.C.
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
99. Time for instituting a suit can be enlarged by invoking which of the following provisions?
(A) Section 151 C.P.C.
(B) Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963
(C) Section 148 C.P.C.
(D) None of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view
100. An application for execution of a decree is filed with some delay i.e. beyond prescribed period of limitation-
(A) delay can be condoned by invoking Section 5 of the Limitation Act
(B) delay can be condoned under Section 148 C.P.C.
(C) delay can be condoned under the inherent powers of the court under Section 151 C.P.C.
(D) None of the above
Answer
Please Login / Register to view