1. Which is the first country to have captured and released the audio from Mars:
(A) China
(B) USA
(C) UAE
(D) Russia
Answer
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Code of Criminal Procedure ->
CHAPTER XII INFORMATION TO THE POLICE AND THEIR POWERS TO INVESTIGATE
Edit
2. An accused in custody for murder is not entitled to what is termed as default bail/compulsive bail under the provision to section 167(2) Cr .P.C. when-
(A) Period of 90 days is expired in custody, no charges sheet has been filed against him, and he has applied for bail orally before the Court.
(B) A charge sheet has been filed against the accused after expiry of 90 days of custody after filling of bail application by the accused.
(C) A charge sheet has been filled after 90 days of custody of the accused but before the accused applies orally or in writing for enlargement on bail.
(D) A request for extension of time for investigation has been made before disposal of application of the accused in custody for enlargement on bail.
Answer
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3. An application for anticipatory bail under section 438 Cr .P.C can be considered by the Courts in the State of U.P with respect to
(A) An offence under section 302 I.P.C
(B) An offence under section 307 I.P.C
(C) An offence punishable under section 3 of U.P Gangster and Anti-Social Activities (Prevention) Act, 1986
(D) An offence punishable under section 3 of Official Secrets Act 1923
Answer
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4. Which of the following statement is correct as regards presumption as to documents under section 90 of the Evidence Act, 1972 in its application to the State of U.P.
(A) Such document should be 30-year-old
(B) Such document should be 5-year-old
(C) Such document should be 20-year-old
(D) none of the above.
Answer
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5. ‘A’ makes a voluntary statement in Police custody confessing the crime of murdering ‘B’ and that he had hidden the weapon of crime behind his house. On his information and pointing, the weapon is discovered. Which of the following statements is correct in law in this context?
(A) Such statement is inadmissible in evidence, in part
(B) Part of the statement containing information which leads to discovery of weapon used in crime is admissible and can be proved.
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer
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6. Which of the following statements if correct, in the context of proof of execution of the document required by law to be attested, when no such attesting witness can be found, is correct.
(A) It is sufficient to prove the signature of the executor of the document as being in his own handwriting.
(B) It is sufficient to prove that the signature of both the attesting witnesses is in their own handwriting.
(C) It must be proved that the attestation of at least one attesting witness is in their own handwriting.
(D) It is sufficient to prove that the attestation of one attesting witness at least is in his own handwriting.
Answer
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7. Preliminary decree passed under the Code of Civil Procedure-
(A) Can be challenge in appeal without waiting for the final decree.
(B) Can only be challenged in appeal.
(C) Cannot be challenged in appeal.
(D) Cannot be challenge in a revision under Section 115 CPC
Answer
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REVENUE CODE ->
CH VIII MANAGEMENT OF LAND OTHER PROPERTIES BY GRAM PANCHAYAT OR OTHER LOCAL AUTHORITY
Edit
8. Which authority is competent to issue notice for eviction and realise damages from a person who has damaged or misappropriated or is found in occupation od a Gaon Sabha Land, unauthorizedly?
(A) Land Management Committee
(B) Lekhpal of the Circle
(C) Assistant Collector concerned
(D) Collector
Answer
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9. Which amongst the following is not exempted from operation of U.P. Urban Buildings (Regulation of Letting, Rent & Eviction) Act, 1972
(A) Any building of which the Government or a local authority or a public sector corporation or a Cantonment Board is the Landlord.
(B) Any building belonging to or vested in a recognised educational institution.
(C) Any building of which the Government or a local authority or a public sector corporation or a Cantonment Board is the tenant.
(D) Any building, whose monthly rent exceeds two thousand rupees.
Answer
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10. What is the motto of the International Olympic Committee?
(A) Faster, Higher, Stronger
(B) just Do it
(C) More Than Passion
(D) We Together
Answer
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11. What is the minimum percentage of total number of tenure holders on whose representation the Collector can chak road or chak gul after notification under Sub-section (1) of section 52-A of the Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953-
(A) Twenty percent
(B) Fifty percent
(C) Ten percent
(D) None of the above
Answer
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12. Deemed vacancy of a building does not arise if:
(A) Landlord or tenant has substantially removed his effects from building.
(B) Landlord or tenant has shifted temporarily in a residence.
(C) In the case of residential building, Landlord or tenant has taken up residence elsewhere.
(D) Landlord or tenant has allowed it to be occupied by any person other than family member.
Answer
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13. Which of the following aircraft carriers on active duty with the Indian Nawy?
(A) INS Vira at
(B) INS Vikram Aditya
(C) INS Vikrant
(D) None of the above
Answer
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14. Who among the following is non-included in the definition of family, ( in relation to a tenure-holder) under the U.P. Revenue Code 2006:-
(A) Wife living separately from her husband: not judicially separated
(B) Third Gender Spouse.
(C) Unmarried minor daughters
(D) Married Daughters
Answer
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15. What is the name of India’s Supercomputer, which is placed among the top 500 world’s most powerful non-distributed computer system ?
(A) Param Siddhi
(B) Param Shiva
(C) Param shakti
(D) Adi shakti
Answer
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16. What is the correct meaning of the Phrase:
‘Open the floodgates’
(A) flooding an area
(B) Remove the restrictions or controls which for a long time have prevented a lot of people from doing what they want
(C) Welcome with open arms
(D) To prevent flooding of law lying area
Answer
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17. Which of the following suit or proceeding does not abate under section 5 of the U.P Consolidation of Holdings Act on issuance of notification under section 4(2) of the Act:
(A) Proceeding for the correction of records.
(B) Suit and proceeding in respect of declaration of rights or interest in any land lying in the area.
(C) Suit or proceeding for declaration of adjudication of any other right in regard to which proceedings can or ought to be taken under the Act.
(D) A suit for cancellation of sale deed on ground of impersonation.
Answer
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18. What does VOC started for in relation to Covid-19?
(A) Variant of Contagious
(B) Variant of Concern
(C) Variant of Cold
(D) None of these
Answer
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19. Which section of the I.T Act has been declared unconstitutional ?
(A) 60 A
(B) 72 A
(C) 68 A
(D) 66 A
Answer
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20. What is the consequence of abandonment of a holding under section 122 of U.P. Revenue code 2006:
(A) The holding shall vest absolutely in the state Government free from all encumbrances.
(B) The Bhumi Dhar concerned shall cease to have any right, title or interest in such holding.
(C) The Bhumi Dhar concerned shall continue to be liable for land revenue due in respect of such holding for the agricultural year in which order declaring the holding abandonment is passed.
(D) ALL OF THE ABOVE
Answer
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21. Taxes which can be imposed by a municipality under the U.P Municipalities Act, 1916:
(A) Tax on the annual value of buildings or land or both.
(B) Water tax on the annual value of buildings or land or both.
(C) Drainage tax on the annual value of buildings or land or both.
(D) All of the above.
Answer
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22. Which book was written by Dadabhai Naoraji on Indian poverty and economy under British rule?
(A) Indian Economy under British Raj
(B) British Rule and Economic Drain of India.
(C) Poverty and Un-British Rule in India.
(D) Economic Drain and Poverty of India.
Answer
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Code of Civil Procedure ->
ORDER IX:APPEARANCE OF PARTIES AND CONSEQUENCE OF NON-APPEARANCE R. 1-14
Edit
23. A final ex parte judgement is not binding on
(A) legal representatives of a party
(B) all bonafide assignees
(C) third parties
(D) All of the above
Answer
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24. In case of merger of the complaint with the Police report, the procedure to be following for the trial:
(A) Shall be of the complaint case
(B) Shall be of the case instituted on the police report
(C) Shall be both as per convenience during the trial
(D) Shall be the one as directed by the Magistrate
Answer
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25. A victim of crime can file an appeal against an order of acquittal:
(A) Without the leave of Appellate Court
(B) Only after obtaining leave of the Appellate Court
(C) After obtaining certificate of leave to appeal by the Trial Court
(D) None of the above
Answer
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26. Under section 145 of the Evidence Act, a witness may be cross examined as to previous statement in writing:
(A) After proving the same and showing the same to the witness
(B) Without proving the same but only after showing the same to the witness
(C) After proving the Same and reading the same to the witness
(D) Without proving the sane and without showing the same to the witness
Answer
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27. ‘A’ sues ‘B’ for eviction and damages. The suit for eviction is decreed against ‘B’ However, the relief for damage is declined. ‘B’ alone file first appeal against the decree against him which is allowed, ‘A’ files second appeal under section 100 CPC thereagainst. In the appeal, ‘A’ can:
(A) Seek relief of eviction against ‘B’
(B) Seek relief of damages against ‘B’
(C) Seek relief of eviction and damages against ‘B’
(D) Seek relief of damages or eviction against ‘B’
Answer
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28. At a trial against ‘A’, ‘Z’ may be summoned by the trial Court, to be tried along with ‘A’ only if that Court is satisfied that there exists:-
(A) All of the above
(B) Only (i)
(C) Only (ii)
(D) Only (iv)
Answer
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Code of Criminal Procedure ->
CHAPTER XII INFORMATION TO THE POLICE AND THEIR POWERS TO INVESTIGATE
Edit
29. A rape accused may be sent for medical examination outside the radius of 16 kilometres of the place of the place of occurrence, at the request of:
(A) Victim
(B) Father, mother or next of kin of a minor victim
(C) Assistant Prosecution Officer or Public Prosecutor
(D) A Police Officer
Answer
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30. An application is made to a High Court having only two judges on the Bench and three vacancies, to set aside forfeiture of newspaper. It may:
(A) Not be heard till one more judge is appointed.
(B) Heard by the Senior of the two judges available.
(C) Be transferred by the President of India to another High Court having five judges,
(D) Be heard by the two judges of the High Court, sitting together.
Answer
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Code of Criminal Procedure ->
CHAPTER VIII SECURITY FOR KEEPING THE PEACE AND FOR GOOD BEHAVIOUR
Edit
31. Security for good behaviour may not be demanded from a habitual Offender if:
(A) Habitual offences arise under the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948.
(B) Habitual offences arise under Customs, Act, 1962.
(C) Habitual offences arise under Essential Commodities Act, 1955
(D) Habitual offences arise under Foreigners Act, 1946
Answer
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32. A decree that mortgagor shall be absolutely debarred of his right to redeem the mortgaged property can be passed in a suit for:-
(A) Specific Performance of a contract
(B) Foreclosure
(C) Redemption
(D) Equitable Mortgage
Answer
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33. Who are believed to be the oldest inhabitants of India?
(A) Mediterranean’s
(B) Negritos
(C) Nordics
(D) Mongoloids
Answer
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34. Pradhan could be removed by Gram Sabha under:-
(A) Section 5-B
(B) Section 12
(C) Section 14
(D) Section 95(1)(g)
Answer
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PANCHAYATI RAJ ->
CH IV POWERS, DUTIES, FUNCTIONS AND ADMINISTRATION OF GRAM PANCHAYATS SS. 15-31
Edit
35. Who is the Secretary of the Land Management Committee:-
(A) Up-Pradhan
(B) Lekhpal of the area
(C) Up-Zila Adhikari
(D) Supervisor Kanungo
Answer
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36. ‘Roses in December’ is the autobiography of
(A) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
(B) JusticeM.C. chhagla
(C) Justice M. Hidayatullah
(D) M.C.Setalwad
Answer
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37. Father executes a gift to his stepson of his residential house and also the house which he was likely to build from his business income. Which of the following is correct in the above context?
(A) Gift in its entirely is impermissible
(B) Gift is void to the extent of house to be built in future
(C) Gift of residential house to stepson is void
(D) Gift to stepson is void only if there is no natural son.
Answer
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38. Land Management Committee is to be mandatorily impleaded as party to demarcation proceeding under U.P Revenue Code, 2006:
(A) In all cases
(B) Where SDO so feels
(C) When suit under Section 229-B (144 of U.P Revenue Code, 2006) for declaration is pending
(D) When contiguous plot belongs to Gram Panchayat.
Answer
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39. Under which provision of U.P Act No. XIII of 1972, a premises which has fallen vacant, is released in favour of landlord:-
(A) Section 12
(B) Section 16
(C) Section 20
(D) Section 21
Answer
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40. Under which one of these modes, the tenancy of statutory tenant devolves upon his heirs:-
(A) By will
(B) By testamentary succession
(C) By gift
(D) By inheritance
Answer
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41. Cost of suit under section 20(4) of U.P Act No. XIII of 1972 includes:-
(A) Cost incurred by landlord in annual maintenance under section 28
(B) Cost incurred by Landlord in providing amenities under section 27
(C) Cost incurred by paying fees to lawyer to the extent of half
(D) All of above
Answer
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42. A person is qualified to be chosen as President of a Municipality if he has attained the age of:-
(A) 30 years
(B) 21 years
(C) 35 years
(D) 40 years
Answer
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43. Preparation of new tax assessment list in a Municipality is ordinarily done once in every:-
(A) two years
(B) four years
(C) five years
(D) every year
Answer
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44. On death of sole petitioner, election petition under section 12-C of the U.P Panchayat Raj Act, 1947:-
(A) Can be continued by his legal heirs
(B) By any other losing candidate
(C) Be legatee of the Petitioner
(D) By none of them
Answer
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45. Which state has hosted 9th edition of International Sand Art Festival?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Gujrat
(C) Odisha
(D) Rajasthan
Answer
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46. Which of it is incorrect:-
No person can simultaneously :
(A) Be the Pradhan of a Gram Panchayat and a Panch of Nyay Panchayat
(B) Be the Pradhan and member of the Gaon Sabha
(C) Be the member of Gram Panchayat from more than one territorial constituency
(D) Be a member of Gram Panchayat and a panch of Nyay Panchayat
Answer
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47. A Development Authority has power to remove encroachment or obstruction on public Land under which provision of U.P Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973:-
(A) Section 16
(B) Section 26-A
(C) Section 27
(D) Section 28-A
Answer
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48. Completion Certificate is granted under which provision of the U.P Urban Planning & Development Act, 1973 :-
(A) Section 15-A
(B) Section 16
(C) Section 26
(D) Section 26-A
Answer
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49. The Ajanta caves depict the story of
(A) Buddhism
(B) Jainism
(C) Hinduism
(D) All of the above
Answer
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50. The Provision of U.P Urban Planning & Development Act, 1973 will apply to:-
(A) Works which affect only the interior of the building and do not materially affect the external appearance
(B) Excavations made in the ordinary course of agriculture operations
(C) Operational constructions including new construction by a department of central Government
(D) Construction of metalled road intended to give access to land solely for agricultural purpose
Answer
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51. A female Hindu who has inherited property from her father, dies in testate and is survived by her husband, mother, and brother. Her non-agriculture immovable property shall devolve in the following manner:-
(A) The Property shall devolve on the husband of the deceased to the exclusion of the mother and brother of the deceased.
(B) The mother and husband of the deceased shall take simultaneously to the exclusion of the brother of the deceased.
(C) The mother and brother of the deceased shall take simultaneously to the exclusion of the husband of the deceased.
(D) The mother, husband and brother of the deceased shall take one share each.
Answer
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52. Wednesbury Principle is a concept in the field of
(A) Administrative Law
(B) Criminal Law
(C) Law of Evidence
(D) Family Law
Answer
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53. Which of the following Bills Passed by the Parliament is required to be ratified by the Legislature of not less than one-half of the states before being presented to the President for assent:-
(A) A Bill to make changes Article 124 (3) of the Constitution prescribing the qualification for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.
(B) A Bill to amend Article 58 of the Constitution prescribing the eligibility for election as President.
(C) A Bill to ament Article 235 of the Constitution which Provides that control over
(D) All the above
Answer
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54. Which Provision of U.P Act XIII of 1972 bears resemblance to section 114 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(A) Section 29-A
(B) Section 20(2)
(C) Section 20(4)
(D) Section 30(4)
Answer
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55. Plea bargaining under Chapter XXI-A Cr. P.C. is available in respect of an offence-
(A) Under the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe (Prevention of Atrocities) Act
(B) Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act 2005
(C) Dowry Prohibition Act 1961
(D) None of the above
Answer
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56. What is the meaning of the word “POSTULATE”
(A) Stand in a particular posture that confuses the onlooker
(B) Assume the existence or fact of something as a basis of reasoning
(C) a letter that is posited late
(D) a confident attitude towards life in general
Answer
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57. Which tiger reserve was awarded the international Award TX2 for doubling the number of tigers in the past four years.
(A) Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh
(B) Ranthambore tiger Reserve in Rajasthan
(C) Pilibhit Tiger Reserve in Uttar Pradesh
(D) Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam
Answer
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58. What is the synonym for shrewd?
(A) astute
(B) naïve
(C) dangerous
(D) shrill
Answer
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59. An accused arrested in connection with an offence may be allowed to be identified by another person, during the investigation by:
(A) The Superintendent of Police of the District where the offence was committed
(B) The Superintendent of Police of the District where the accused was arrested
(C) The officer in charge of the concerned Police station, through Court
(D) The officer in charge of the concerned Police station, or the Superintendent of police of the concerned District.
Answer
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60. Choose the account meaning of the phrase, ”the letter of the Law”
(A) alphabets in an enactment
(B) letter sent by a lawyer
(C) the exact words of a law or rule rather than its general meaning
(D) none of the above
Answer
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61. Which one the following is correct Hindi transaction of word ‘revoke’?
(A) प्रत्याहरण
(B) प्रतिसहरण
(C) प्रत्यावर्तन
(D) अपवर्तन
Answer
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62. ‘A’ owns ‘B’ Rs. 1000000 as debt but the recovery of debts amount is barred by the Limitation Act, 1963. ‘Act , 1963 ‘A’ voluntary but without any consideration either having been paid to him or promised to be paid by ‘B’ signs a written instrument to pay ‘B’ Rs. 10,00000 on account of the debt. Which of the following statement is correct?-
(A) The contract between A and B is void as it without consideration.
(B) The agreement between A and B is a valid contract enforceable in law
(C) The agreement is a contract voidable at the option of A
(D) The contract is void because it defeats the provisions of the Limitation Act.
Answer
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63. What is the antonym for slander?
(A) defamation
(B) slippery
(C) commendation
(D) horrible
Answer
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64. Who is the father of ‘green revolution “ in India :
(A) Norman Borlaug
(B) M.S. Swaminathan
(C) commendation
(D) horrible
Answer
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65. A partner in a partnership firm may retire:
(A) With the consent of all other partners
(B) In accordance with an express agreement by the partners
(C) By giving notice in writing to all the other partners of his intention to retire
(D) In all of the above
Answer
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66. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which of the following is transferable:-
(A) The chance of a relation obtaining a legacy on the death of a Kinsman
(B) A mere right to sue
(C) The salary of a public officer after it has become payable
(D) None of the above
Answer
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67. The Sabarmati River originates in which among the following ranges:
(A) The Satpuras
(B) The Vindhyas
(C) The Aravallies
(D) The Western Ghats
Answer
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68. In the election of the president of India, there shall be uniformity:
(A) In the scale of representation of different states
(B) In the number of votes of different states
(C) In the scale of representation of nominated members of the Legislative Council
(D) In the number of Member of Parliament from different states
Answer
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69. In which of the following cases a marriage between two Hindus is null and void:-
(A) Where the bride is less than eighteen years of age
(B) Where at the time of marriage either party to the marriage was suffering from a venereal disease in a communicable form.
(C) Where the parties are Sapaindas of each other and other and no usage or custom governing each of them permits of a marriage between the two.
(D) In none of the above cases.
Answer
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70. What is the meaning of the word “RESTITUTION”
(A) to put something lost to its previous state
(B) to put a matter to rest
(C) having a sense of deep understanding of a subject
(D) to restore a case which was dismissed in default
Answer
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71. A male Hindu dies intestate survived by his wife, son, mother, and father: His non-agricultural immovable property shall devolve in the following manner:
(A) The wife, son and mother shall take simultaneously to the exclusion of the father
(B) The wife, son and father shall take simultaneously to the exclusion of the mother
(C) Wife and son shall take simultaneously to the exclusion of the father and mother
(D) Wife, son, father, and mother shall take one share each.
Answer
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72. Entomology is a science related to :
(A) Fishes
(B) Insects
(C) Reptiles
(D) Mammals
Answer
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73. What does the idiom “read between the line” mean ?
(A) read the shall words between the lines
(B) read the lines in one’s palm
(C) discover a meaning in what is not openly stated
(D) find the meaning of life
Answer
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74. If any question arises as to the age of judge of a High Court, it shall be decided by:-
(A) By the President of India after consultation with the Chief Justice of the India
(B) By the President of India after consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court.
(C) By the President of India after consulting the Collegium of the High Court consisting of the Chief justice of the High Court and two seniors most judges of the Supreme Court.
(D) By the President of India after consulting the Collegium of the Supreme Court consisting of the Chief justice of the India court and two seniors most judges of the Supreme Court
Answer
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75. Communication between lawyer and client is:
(A) Protected from disclosure in all events
(B) Not protected from disclosure If it relates to any crime committed since after engagement.
(C) If it relates to crime committed before engagement
(D) Protected from disclosure even if made in furtherance of illegal purpose
Answer
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76. A member of a civil services of a State or Civil service of a Union may dismissed or removed from service without any inquiry and without hearing hm :
(A) When he is dismissed or removed from service on the ground of conduct which has led to his conviction on a criminal charge.
(B) When he is dismissed or removed from service on ground of indiscipline.
(C) When he is dismissed or removed from service on ground of having disobeyed the orders of a court.
(D) In none of the above cases.
Answer
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77. Which one world would describe the Phrase: A child of unmarried Parents: ?
(A) innocent
(B) orphan
(C) poor
(D) bastard
Answer
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78. Where a proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 is in operation, the right to move any court for the enforcement of which of the following Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended:-
(A) The right of religious and linguistic minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
(B) Right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
(C) Right to an accused of an offence not be compelled to be a witness against oneself.
(D) Right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
Answer
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79. All India judicial service can be created.
(A) By Legislation by Parliament under Article 312 of the Constitution of India
(B) By a President Order
(C) By an executive direction to be issued by Ministry of law and justice, Government of India
(D) By none of the procedures enumerated in (A), (B) & (C) above
Answer
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80. Choose the correct meaning of the phrase, “the law of the jungle”
(A) a society in which people are prepared to harm other people in order to succeed
(B) law of living things in the jungle
(C) forest enactments
(D) none of the above
Answer
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81. Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 does not apply to:
(A) Lingayats
(B) Followers of Prarthna Samaj
(C) Sikhs
(D) A Parsi Living in India for centuries
Answer
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82. Section 52 of Transfer of Property-Act contains the doctrine of :
(A) Estoppel
(B) Lis Pendens
(C) Waiver
(D) Acquiescence
Answer
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83. Which of the following is not an essential element of gift:
(A) Donor
(B) It has to be voluntary
(C) Donee
(D) Consideration
Answer
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84. Who has won the gold medal in the Javelin throw at Tokyo Paralympic 2020:-
(A) Neeraj Chopra
(B) Sumit Chopra
(C) Sumit Antill
(D) S. Sandeep
Answer
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85. Which of the following statement most correctly underlines the distinction between tort and crime:
(A) Tort is infringement of private or civil right of an individual whereas crime is breach of public right and duties.
(B) In tort action is brought in the name of State whereas in crime action is brought by the injured party.
(C) Award of compensation in a tort action is ancillary whereas in criminal action it is the main purpose.
(D) In crime the wrongdoer is ordered to compensate the injured whereas in tort wrongdoer can be punished as well.
Answer
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86. Preparation of which of the following offences is punishable:
(A) Robbery
(B) Extortion
(C) Riot
(D) Dacoity
Answer
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87. A transfer of immovable property made with intent to defeat or delay the creditors of the transferor shall be:
(A) Void
(B) Voidable at the discretion of the Court
(C) Voidable at the option of any creditors so defeated or delayed
(D) All of the above
Answer
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88. What is the meaning of the phrase, “marshalling” of facts ”?
(A) Bring together or arrange in order facts and information
(B) appointment of a person as marshal to look after the facts
(C) ascertain the facts in a manner that would make it compatible with law
(D) none of the above
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89\. Thesaurus is associated with: (A) study of religion (B) study of God (C) study of earth (D) study of words
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90. Which of the following cannot claim maintenance under section 125(4) of the Cr. P.C:
(A) Wife living in adultery
(B) Wife living separated by mutual consent
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) None of the above
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91. When a search is required to be conducted outside India, a criminal court may under Section 166 (A) of the Cr. P.C. issue a :
(A) Search warrant
(B) Letter of requisition
(C) Letter of request
(D) Written Order
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92. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which one of the following statements is correct:
(A) All misrepresentations involve fraud
(B) All frauds involve misrepresentations
(C) Fraud and misrepresentations have nothing in common
(D) Coercion is common to both fraud and misrepresentation.
Answer
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93. Under Section 60 of the Easement Act, a license is revocable except in one of the contingencies enumerated below. Identify the one where it is Irrevocable:
(A) Where license is granted to the use of land for passage to the owner of an adjoining land, because the latter is land-locked
(B) Where of the owner of land adjoining another grants permission to the latter to lay a drain over his land connecting it to the public sewer line.
(C) Where the licencee subsequent to the grant of license becomes the absolute owner of the property, subject matter of the license.
(D) Where the licencee, acting upon the licence, has constructed a house of a permanent character, and incurred substantial expenditure in the construction.
Answer
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94. Where ‘A’ the owner of two or more immovable properties mortgages them to ‘B’ and then sells one or more of the properties to ‘C’, ‘B’ has the right, in the absence of a contract to the contrary, to have has mortgage-debt satisfied out of ‘A’s property not sold to ‘C’. This right of vendee of the mortgage’s interest is called:
(A) Assignment
(B) Redemption
(C) Foreclosure
(D) Marshalling
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95. A Magistrate convicts an accused of theft for one year imprisonment and one thousand fines. The maximum punishment for which accused can be sentenced to imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall be:
(A) 1 year
(B) 9 months
(C) 3 months
(D) 6 months
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96. What is the synonym of the word expeditiously :
(A) Promptly and efficiently
(B) Incompletely
(C) Tersely
(D) Rudely
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97. As per restrictions prescribed under section 10 C.P.C which following is barred.
(A) Institution of a suit.
(B) Framing of the issues.
(C) Grant of an injunction.
(D) Trial of the suit.
Answer
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Code of Civil Procedure ->
Public nuisances and other wrongful acts affecting the public Ss. 91-93
Edit
98. In a suit instituted under section 92 C.P.C which is the following is correct.
(A) The suit can be instituted by the two or more persons
(B) The suit can be instituted by the Advocate General
(C) The suit must relate to public charity
(D) All of the above
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99. Which of the followings statement will be true for a dying declaration:-
(i) Dying Declaration can be used as sole basis for conviction
(ii) Oral Dying Declaration is exception to rule of hearsay evidence
(iii) Dying Declaration must be used cautiously and strictly
(iv) None of the above
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) only
(D) (iv) only
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100. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India ordered that no prosecution against a sitting or former M.P./M.L.A shall be withdrawn under section 321 Cr. P .c without the leave of the High Court.
(A) State of Kerala Vs. k. Ajith & others
(B) Sheonandan Paswan Vs. State of Bihar
(c) Ashwini Upadhyaya Vs. Union of India & others
(D) P.V. Narsimha Rao Vs. state ( CBI/SPE) etc.
Answer
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