PANCHAYATI RAJ ->
CH IV POWERS, DUTIES, FUNCTIONS AND ADMINISTRATION OF GRAM PANCHAYATS SS. 15-31
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1. Which section of the UP. Panchayat Raj Act, 1947 provides function, of Panchayat:
(a) Section 15
(b) Section 15 A
(c) Section 32
(d) Section 26
Answer
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2. The essential ingredient to form an unlawful assembly as defined in Indian Penal Code is :
(a) an assembly of two or more persons with common object of doing a crime
(b) an assembly of five or more persons armed with weapon
(c) an assembly of five or more persons with common object of doing a crime
(d) an assembly of five or more persons disturbing public peace and tranquility
Answer
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3. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 has inserted four new sections after section 354 of the Penal Code. One of the newly inserted sections deals with Voyeurism. Mark that Section :
(a) Section 354 A
(b) Section 354 B
(c) Section 354 C
(d) Section 354 D
Answer
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4. Which section under the U.P. Urban Planning and Development Act,1973
provides the composition of offences i
(a) Section 32
(b) Section 35
(c) Section 54
(d) Section 40
Answer
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5. Under which section of the U.P. Panchayat Raj Act, 1947 the State Government has power to reserve offices of Pradhan for Schedule Castes, the Scheduled Tribes and the Backward classes under *.
(a) Section 11
(b) Section 11A (2)
(c) Section 11 D
(d) Section 11E
Answer
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PANCHAYATI RAJ ->
CH IV POWERS, DUTIES, FUNCTIONS AND ADMINISTRATION OF GRAM PANCHAYATS SS. 15-31
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6. Powers, Duties, Functions and Administration of Gram Panchayat are provided under which Chapter of the U.P. Panchayat Raj Act, 1947 :
(s) Chapter IV
(b) Chapter III
(c) Chapter V
(d) Chapter IX
Answer
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7. Who has power to make regulation under the provisions of the U.P. Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973 :
(a) State Government
(b) Development Authority
(c) Vice-Chairman of Authority
(d) Chairman of the Authority *
Answer
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8. Section 26 C of the U.P. Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973 empowers the Authority to remove anything erected over any street or upon or over any open channel, drain etc. contrary to the provision of Act Which statement is correct regarding exercise of the said power :
(a) The Authority can remove permanent or temporary structure without notice
(b) A notice of 15 days is necessary before removal
(c) A notice of only 7 days is necessary
(d) A notice of only 3 days is necessary
Answer
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9. The term ‘Development’ is defined under the U.P. Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973 :
(a) Section 2 (e) (b) Section 2 (k)
(c) Section 2 (m) (d) Section 2 (f)
Answer
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10. The Supreme Court can be moved under Article 32 of the Constitution of India for the enforcement of :
(a) Directive principles of state policy
(b) Fundamental rights
(c) Civil rights
(d) Fundamental duties
Answer
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11. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, an appeal shall lie from which of the following orders ?
(a) an order under Order XLI Rule 23
(b) an order under Order XLI Rule 25
(c) an order under Order XLI Rule 17
(d) none of the above
Answer
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Code of Civil Procedure ->
ORDER IX:APPEARANCE OF PARTIES AND CONSEQUENCE OF NON-APPEARANCE R. 1-14
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12. In the Code of Civil Procedure, an ex parte decree can be set aside:
(a) Under Order IX Rule 5
(b) Under Order IX Rule 10
(c) Under Order IX Rule 13
(d) Under order IX Rule 11
Answer
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13. Under Muslim Law, Khula’ and ‘Mubarat’ are :
(a) the forms of marriage
(b) the forms of dissolution of marriage by agreement
(c) the forms of repudiation of gift on attaining majority
(d) the forms of demanding pre-emotion
Answer
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14. A witness unable to speak, if gives his statement in writing before the Court, then such evidence shall be deemed to be :
(a) Oral evidence
(b) Documentary evidence
(c) Hearsay evidence
(d) Primary evidence
Answer
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15. An accused in police custody, informs the Station House Officer that the key by which he opened the safe and committed theft is kept by him in the patio of his house.
To what extent this information can be proved :
(a) For committing an offence of theft
(b) For opening lock of safe
(c) For committing theft by opening safe and destroying evidence
(d) For keeping the key in patio of house
Answer
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16. In a trial, while explaining any instances appearing in evidence agains him, an accused of committing murder states that due to grave an<
sudden provocation he was deprived of the power of self-control and thus, gave a single lathi blow to A, causing his death.
The burden to prove grave and sudden provocation is on :
(a) The Prosecution
(b) The Investigating agency
(c) The Court
(d) The Accused
Answer
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17. To whom, as per Section 98 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, a complaint on oath for restoration of an abducted female child to the person having her lawful charge, may be presented ?
(a) The District Magistrate
(b) The Sub Divisional Magistrate
(c) The Magistrate First Class
(d) All the above
Answer
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18. The offence affecting the socio-economic condition of the country, to which a bargaining is not applicable, shall be notified by :
(a) The State Government
(b) The Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribes Commission
(c) The Human Rights Commission
(d) The Central Government
Answer
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19. On a busy junction of road, a huge poster/banner installed by an association creating obstruction in traffic. Who from amongst the following, on having information, may remove such banner/poster by initiating proceedings under the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure:
QUESTION DELETED BY HIGH Court Pl Mark A
(a) The District Magistrate
(b) The Chief Judicial Magistrate
(c) The Sub Divisional Magistrate
(d) The Collector
(e) QUESTION DELETED BY HIGH Court
Answer
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20. A police officer has received a sum of Rs.5000/- against fine from the persons violating traffic rules. Instead of depositing the fine money with State Treasury, he utilized the same for his personal use. What offence under Indian Penal Code, the police officer has committed :
(a) Criminal breach of trust
(b) Mischief
(c) Cheating the Government
(d) None of the above
Answer
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21. Who, according to Section 21 of Indian Penal Code, 1860, is not a public servant :
(a) A commissioned officer in Indian Army, Navy and Air Force
(b) An arbitrator to whom any cause has been referred for adjudication by any court of justice
(c) An officer, who, by virtue of his office, is empowered to place or keep any person in confinement
(d) An advocate, who practices law in a court of justice
Answer
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22. A informs B that he had heard from X that Z has committed murder of C. Evidence of B when examined as a witness in court, would be considered as :
(a) Direct evidence
(b) Hearsay evidence
(c) Circumstantial evidence
(d) Expert evidence
Answer
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23. In which of the following cases, did the Supreme Court uphold the validity of the Code of Civil Procedure Amendment Acts of 1999 and 2002 :
(a) Delhi H.C. Bar Association v. UOI
(b) Allahabad H.C. Bar Association v. UOI
(c) Salem Advocate Bar Association v. UOl
(d) P&H H.C. Bar Association v. UOI
Answer
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Code of Criminal Procedure ->
CHAPTER XXIV GENERAL PROVISIONS AS TO INQUIRIES AND TRIALS Ss. 300 - 327
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24. Which of the following offences is cognizable, non-bailable and un-compoundable:
(a) voluntarily causing grievous hurt, punishable under Section 325 IPC
(b) attempt to murder punishable under Section 307 IPC
(c) voluntarily causing hurt to extort confession, or to compel restoration of property, punishable under Section 330IPC
(d) voluntarily causing grievous hurt on provocation punishable under Section 335 IPC
Answer
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25. Burden of proof under Section 101 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 :
(a) goes on shifting as the trial proceeds
(b) never shifts
(c) may shift
(d) both (a) and (b) are correct
Answer
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26. “My Own Boswell” is autobiography of:
(a) Justice Mohd. C. Chagla
(b) Justice M. Hidayatulla
(c) Justice V.r. Krishna Iyear
(d) Justice Markandey Katju
Answer
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27. First woman to become High Court Judge in India is :
(a) Justice Leila Seth
(b) Justice Fatima Beevi
(c) Justice K.K. Usha
(d) Justice Anna Chandy.
Answer
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28. In which year the High Court of Judicature of Allahabad was stablished:
(a) 1916 AD
(b) 1866 AD
(c) 1888 AD
(d) 1868 AD
Answer
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29. The Highest Civilian Award in the Republic of India is :
(a) Padma Vibhushan
(b) Padma Shri
(c) Padma Bhushan
(d) None among the above three
Answer
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30. Heema Das is :
(a) An Athlete
(b) An Actor
(c) A Cricketer
(d) A Writer
Answer
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31. The National Award for outstanding contribution to the growth development of Indian Cinema is :
(a) Swarn Kamal
(b) Oscar
(c) Dada Saheb Palke
(d) Cinema Ratna
Answer
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32. The First woman Minister with Defence Portfolio in Independent India:
(a) Nirmala Sitharaman
(b) Marge ratAlva
(c) Sheela Dixit
(d) Indira Gandhi
Answer
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33. Part XIV of the Constitution of India relates to :
(a) Elections
(b) Special provision relating to certain classes
(c) Service under the Union and the States
(d) None from the above
Answer
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34. The concept of equal justice and free legal aid is given under Article :
(a) 14 of the Constitution of India
(b) 16 of the Constitution of India
(c) 39-A of the Constitution of India
(d) 43-A of the Constitution of India
Answer
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35. Can a distinguished jurist, who neither remained an Advocate nor a Judicial Officer, be appointed as a Judge of Allahabad High Court:
(a) No
(b) Yes, if the collegium of Judges of Allahabad High Court recommends for that
(c) Yes, by the President of India after consultation with Chief Justice of India
(d) Yes, if the collegium of Supreme Court Judges recommends for that
Answer
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36. The Tenth Schedule was appended with the Constitution of India:
(a) By the Constitution (Fifty-Second Amendment) Act, 1985
(b) By the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976
(c) By the Constitutiion (Thirty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1975
(d) By none from the above
Answer
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37. Article 371 of the Constitution of India prescribes :
(a) Special provisions with respect to the States of Maharashtra and Guiarat
(b) Special Provisions with respect to the State of Nagaland
(c) Special provisions with respect to the State of Manipur
(d) Temporary provisions with respect to the State of Jammu Sc Kashmir
Answer
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38.Can a juristic person acquire citizenship under Part-II of the Constitution of India ?
(a) Yes, if the juristic person is in operation from more than 10 years in Indian territory
(b) Yes, if that had operation in pre-partition Indian territory
(c) No
(d) Yes, as per provisions of The Citizenship Act, 1955
Answer
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39. The Provisions for appointment to District Judges are prescribed in :
(a) Part-VI Chapter V of the Constitution of India
(b) Part-VI Chapter VI of the Constitution of India
(c) Part-Ill of the Constitution of India
(d) Part-V Chapter VI of the Constitution of India
Answer
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40. The establishment of the Central Administrative Tribunal is in consonance with the provisions of:
(a) Article 323-B of the Constitution of India
(b) Article 323-A of the Constitution of India
(c) Article 315 of the Constitution of India
(d) Article 320 of the Constitution of India
Answer
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RENT CONTROL ->
CH V REGULATION OF OTHER RIGHTS AND OBLIGATIONS OF LANDLORD AND TENANT SS. 25-30
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41. Section 29-A of U.P Urban Building (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972 applies to which one of the following category of tenancy :
(a) Fix term tenancy of building
(b) Tenancy of land where tenant has built permanent structure with consent of landlord
(c) Sub-tenancy where Sub-tenant was inducted with consent of landlord
(d) None of above
Answer
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RENT CONTROL ->
CH V REGULATION OF OTHER RIGHTS AND OBLIGATIONS OF LANDLORD AND TENANT SS. 25-30
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42. The tenant of a building governed by U.P. Urban Building (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972 can deposit rent before the court, if refused by landlord, under :
(a) Section 16
(b) Section 21
(c) Section 30 (2)
(d) None of the above
Answer
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43. Offence under U.P. Act No. XIII of 1972 is triable by :
(a) District Magistrate
(b) Rent Control and Eviction Officer
(c) Magistrate of First Class
(d) Court designated for the said purpose by the State Government
Answer
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44. If a person votes in more than one ward at a general election of a Municipality, his vote would be :
(a) void in one ward
(b) void in all the wards
(c) valid in one ward of his choice
(d) none of the above
Answer
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45. Term of a Municipality constituted under the U.P. Municipalities Act, 1916 is :
(a) Six years from the date of first meeting
(b) Four years from the date of oath
(c) Five years from the date of declaradon of result
(d) None of the above
Answer
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46. At a general election of a Municipality, a person in lawful custody of Police, other than a preventive detenue :
(a) can cast postal vote
(b) can cast vote with the permission of concerned court
(c) can cast vote with permission of Jail Superintendent
(d) cannot cast vote
Answer
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47. Consolidation operations in a stillage close with issuance of notification under which provision of the U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1963;
(a) Section 48
(b) Section 52
(c) Section 53
(d) Section 54
Answer
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48. Provision for abatement of suit, upon start of consolidation operation is
provided under:
(a) Section 4
(b) Section 5
(c) Section 6
(d) Section 8-A
Answer
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49. Director of Consolidation exercise power of :
(a) Review only
(b) Reference onlyy
(c) Both Revision and Reference
(d) Power of appeal
Answer
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PANCHAYATI RAJ ->
CH IV POWERS, DUTIES, FUNCTIONS AND ADMINISTRATION OF GRAM PANCHAYATS SS. 15-31
Edit
50. Surcharge proceedings under Panchayat Raj Act, 1947 are for :
(a) Recovery of loan taken from Gram Fund
(b) Recovery of license fees, due to Gram Sabha
(c) Recovery of tax on income from haat, markets and fair
(d) Recovery of loss of money of Gram Panchayat or Nyay Panchaya
Answer
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51. Which is incorrect: Nyay Panchayat has power to :
(a) hear civil cases
(b) hear criminal cases
(c) inflict substantive sentence of imprisonment
(d) power of punish for the contempt
Answer
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52. On death of sole petitioner, election petition under Section 12-C of the U.P. Panchayat Raj Act, 1947 can be continued :
(a) by his legal heirs
(b) by any other losing candidate
(c) by legatee of the petitioner
(d) None of them
Answer
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53. Which of it is incorrect; No person can simultaneously :
(a) be the Pradhan of a Gram Panchayat and a Panch of Nyay Panchayat
(b) be the Pradhan and member of the Gaon Sabha
(c) be the member of a Gram Panchayat from more than one territorial
constituency
(d) be a member of Gram Panchayat and a Panch of Nyay Panchayat
Answer
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54. Appeal against demolition order passed under Section 27 of the U.P. Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973 lies to :
(a) Vice Chairman
(b) Officer designated by State Government
(c) Chairman
(d) State Government
Answer
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55. Master Plan prepared by a Development Authority under the provisions of tire U.P. Urban Planning & Development Act, 1973, requires approval of?
(a) Vidhan Sabha
(b) Chairman
(c) State Government
(d) Each House of the State Legislature
Answer
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56. An agreement by a debtor not to raise the plea of limitation is :
(a) valid and binding
(b) void
(c) illegal
(d) voidable at the option of the creditor
Answer
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57. A contract does not stand discharged :
(a) by performance
(b) by breach of contract
(c) by impossibility of performance
(d) by a mere delay in performance
Answer
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58. A promise to subscribe to a charity is a :
(a) void contract
(b) void agreement
(c) voidable contract
(d) valid contract
Answer
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59. A partnership firm is a legal entity “like a company”. The statement is :
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true
(d) None of the above
Answer
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60. The liability of the Partners for the acts of the firm is :
(a) Joint
(b) Several
(c) Joint and Several
(d) None of the above
Answer
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61. A Corporation can enter into a contract of partnership and become a partner of a firm . The statement is :
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true
(d) None of the above
Answer
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62. A continuous easement to is extinguished when it totally ceases to be enjoyed as such for an unbroken period of how many years :
(a) 5 years
(b) 15 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 30 years
Answer
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63. The Rule of ‘res ipsa loquitur’ is related to the test of :
(a) Negligence
(b) False imprisonment
(c) Defamation
(d) Malicious prosecution
Answer
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64. Transfer of immovable property made with the interest to defeat of delay the creditors of the transfer is known as :
(a) fraudulent transfer
(b) transfer lis pendence
(c) feeding the grant
(d) transfer by ostensible owner
Answer
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65. Rule Relating to Sapinda relationship are bases on the principle of:
(a) Polygamy
(b) Endogamy
(c) Exogamy
(d) Polyandry
Answer
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66. A defence of nullity of marriage in case of voidable marriage, annuls the marriage from the :
(a) date of the decree
(b) date of the petition
(c) date of the marriage
(d) date as directed by the Court
Answer
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67. Non-registration of marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955:
(a) invalidates the marriage and calls for imposition of penalty
(b) does not invalidate the marriage but calls for imposition of penalty
(c) neither invalidates the marriage nor calls for imposition of penalty
(d) makes the marriage voidable
Answer
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68. On consummation of a Muta Marriage, the wife is entitled to :
(a) half dower
(b) full dower
(c) double dower
(d) No dower
Answer
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69. Islamic law is called :
(a) Hadith
(b) Sharia
(c) Ijma
(d) Sunna
Answer
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70. Prophet Mohammad is the :
(a) founder of Islam
(b) first messenger of God
(c) final messenger of God
(d) none of the above
Answer
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71. Which of the following is/are the exception to the general rule that there can be no specific enforcement of a contract of employment for personal service?
(a) A public servant dismissed in etiolation of Article 311 of Constitution of India
(b) A worker dismissed in violation of Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(c) A statutory body acts in breach of mandatory obligation
(d) All of the above
Answer
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72. Which classification of offence comes under Criminal Procedure Code :
(a) cognizable and non-cognizable
(b) bailable and non-bailable
(c) summons cases and warrant cases
(d) All the above
Answer
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73. In a bailable offence the bail is granted as matter of right :
(a) by the police officer
(b) by the court
(c) both by the police officer & the court
(d) cither (a) or (b)
Answer
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74. A proclamation under section 82 of Cr. P.C. can be issued against a person against whom a warrant has been issued. Thus a proclamation can be issued against:
(a) accused offender
(b) a surety
(c) a witness
(d) all the above
Answer
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Code of Criminal Procedure ->
CHAPTER XII INFORMATION TO THE POLICE AND THEIR POWERS TO INVESTIGATE
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75. Statements of witnesses recorded under section 164 of Cr.P.C. are :
(a) substantive evidence
(b) corroborative evidence
(c) both substantive and corroborative evidence
(d) neither substantive nor corroborative evidence
Answer
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76. The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 extends to the :
(a) whole of India
(b) whole of India, except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
(c) whole of India, except the Scheduled Areas and State of Jammu and Kashmir
(d) whole of India, except the State of Jammu and Kashmir and Tribal Areas
Answer
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77. A preliminary decree :
(a) Determines the rights of the parties with regard to some or one of the matters in controversy in the suit but does not completely dispose of the suit.
(b) Is a stage in working out the rights of the parties which are to be finally adjudicated by a final decree
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer
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78. Ram was dispossessed from his house by Shyam for a year. Ram files a suit for possession against Shyam but did not included claim for damages in it. For claiming damages Ram :
(a) Could file a new suit
(b) Could not file a new suit
(c) Could file a new suit with the permission of the court
(d) None of the above.
Answer
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79. A suit instituted in India for enforcing a foreign judgment is to be filed within how many years :
(a) Within one tear from die date of the judgment
(b) Within five years from the date of the judgment
(c) Within two years from the date of the judgment
(d) Within three years from the date of the judgment
Answer
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80. Which of the following remedies is not available to set aside ex parte decree :
QUESTION CANCELLED
(a) Appeal under Section 96 (2)
(b) Review under Section 114 and Order 47
(c) Application under Order 9, Rule 13
(d) All of the above
PLEASE CHOOSE A
Answer
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81. Under Order 39 Rule 4 of CPC an order for injunction may be discharged, varied or set aside by the court :
(a) On the application of the plaintiff
(b) On the application of the defendant
(c) On the application of any party
(d) Court on its own motion
Answer
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82. After withdrawal of the suit, a plaintiff :
(a) can institute a fresh suit in respect of the same subject-matter
(b) can institute a fresh suit in respect of the same subject-matter only with the leave of the court
(c) can institute a fresh suit in respect of the same subject-matter, without
liberty of the court.
(d) cannot institute a fresh suit in respect of the same subject-matter, unless liberty is given at the time of withdrawal of the suit.
Answer
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83. A decree passed in a suit under Order 37 of CPC without applying for
leave to defend may be set aside under :
(a) Order 9 Rule 13 of CPC
(b) Older 37 Rule 4 of CPC
(c) Order 37 Rule 7 of CPC
(d) Either (a) or (b) or (c)
Answer
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84. Kidnapping from lawful guardianship under Section 361 of IPC can be :
(a) of a person under sixteen years of age if male
(b) of a person under eighteen years of age if female
(c) of a person of unsound mind
(d) All of the above
Answer
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85. Under Section 27 of Evidence Act :
(a) the whole statement is admissible
(b) only that portion which distinctly relates to the discovert" is admissible
(c) both are admissible depending on the facts & circumstances of the case
(d) only (a) & not (b)
Answer
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86. Re-examination of witness :
(a) can be for the purposes of filling what is left-over in examination in chief
(b) can be for the purposes of explaining the matters referred to in cross-examination
(c) can be for the purposes of explaining the matter referred to in the examination in chief.
(d) all the above
Answer
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87. The Finance Commission gives recommendations to President as to :
(a) distribution of net proceeds of taxes between Union and States
(b) principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States of the Consolidated Funds of India
(c) measures needed to augment the Consolidated Funds of a State to supplement
the resources of Panchayats and Municipalities
(d) all the above
Answer
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88. The phrase “Legitimate expectation” relates to which of the following legal wings :
(a) Administrative law
(b) Constitutional law
(c) Structural law
(d) None of the above
Answer
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89. Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced by following Constitutional Amendment :
fa) Constitution One Hundredth Amendment Act 2016
(b) Constitution One Hundred and First .Amendment Act 2016
(c) Constitunon Ninety-ninth .Amendment Act, 2016
(d) Constitution One Hundred and Second Amendment Act 2016
Answer
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90. According to Article 22 (4) no detention of any person is possible without the intercession of the Advisory Board for a period exceeding :
(a) one month
(b) two months
(c) three months
(d) six months
Answer
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91. Which of the following cannot be ground for filing a suit for eviction under Section 20 of U.P. Urban Building (Regulation of Letting, Rent & Eviction) Act, 1972 .
(a) tenant has caused substantial damage to the building
(b) tenant has not paid rent for a period of 3 months
(c) tenant has been convicted for an offence of using the building for illegal purpose
(d) tenant has allowed to occupy the building as a part of his contract of employment under the landlord and his employment has seized
Answer
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RENT CONTROL ->
CH V REGULATION OF OTHER RIGHTS AND OBLIGATIONS OF LANDLORD AND TENANT SS. 25-30
Edit
92. An application to restore amenities illegally withheld by the landlord would lie before :
(a) Rent Control and Eviction Officer
(b) District Magistrate Officer
(c) Prescribed Authority
(d) District Judge
Answer
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93. A petition for transfer of election petition filed under U.P. Municipalities Act, 1916 would lie before :
(a) State Government
(b) Prescribed Authority
(c) Commissioner of the Division
(d) High Court if transfer is to a different district and District Judge within
the district
Answer
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94. Under which law, an old woman who had no more chance to become pregnant need not perform Iddat :
QUESTION DELETED
(a) Shaft
(b) Shia
(c) Hanafi
(d) Hannah
Answer
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95. Out of following which is the correct order of cross examination of witness :
(a) re-examination, examination in chief, cross examination
(b) cross examination, re-examination, examination in chief
(c) examination in chief, cross examination, re-examination
(d) cross examination, examinationin chief, re-examination
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96. No wife shall be entitled to receive maintenance from her husband under Section 125 Cr.PC if :
(a) she has obtained a divorce from her husband and has not re-married
(b) she is unable to maintain herself
(c) she refused to live with her husband on the ground that he keeps a mistress
(d) she is living in adultery
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97. A decree for restitution of conjugal rights may be enforced :
(a) by attachment of property
(b) by injunction
(c) by detention in civil prison
(d) none of above
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98. Injunction cannot be granted in a suit:
(a) in which the specific performance cannot be enforced
(b) for breach of negative contract to enforce specific performance
(c) for declaration where the plaintiff is in possession
(d) none of above
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99. What is carbon footprint:
(a) It is a market based approach for controlling pollution by providing economic incentives for achieving reductions in the emissions of pollutants
(b) If refers to selling of carbon credits to customers
(c) It is a certificate showing that a company or government has paid to have a certain amount of carbon dioxide removed from the environment
(d) It is the total set of greenhouse gases emissions caused by an organisation or product or person
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100. Under which of the following circumstances interest of Bhumidhar with non-transierable right extinguishes :
(a) "Other, he get converted himself m another religion
(b) When he becomes Sadhu
(c) When he has been deprived of the possessioin and his right of recover possession is barred by limitation
(d) None of the above
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