1. As per the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, business includes:
A. Every trade, occupation and profession
B. Every service including service on contract basis
C. Medical assistance given under National Rural Health Mission
D. None of the above
Answer
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2. Which of the following statement is not correct:
A. A firm may be dissolved with the consent of all the partners
B. A firm may be dissolved in accordance with a contract between the partners
C. A firm stands dissolved by the happening of any event that makes it unlawful for the business
D. A firm may be dissolved as per will of any of its partner without giving any notice in writing to the other partners
Answer
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3. A patient in a lunatic asylum, who is, at intervals, of sound mind:
A. May contract during those intervals
B. Cannot contract during those intervals
C. May contract during those intervals with the aid of a guardian
D. May contract after having permission from the competent Government authority
Answer
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4. ‘A’, a famous painter, promises to paint a picture of ‘B’:
A. ‘A’ must perform this promise personally
B. ‘A’ may perform this promise through outsourcing
C. ‘A’ may perform this promise by getting the picture painted through an equally eminent painter
D. All the above statements are correct
Answer
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5. As per provisions of Indian Contract Act, 1872, consent is said to be free when it is not caused by:
A. Coercion as defined under Section 15
B. Undue influence as defined under Section 16
C. Fraud as defined under Section 17
D. All of the above
Answer
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6. Which of the following is not a remedy for breach of contract:
A. damages
B. injuction
C. fine
D. specific performance
Answer
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7. Part IX-A relating to Municipalities was inserted in the Constitution of India by the:
A. Constitution (Seventy-fourth Amendment)Act, 1992
B. Constitution (Seventy-first Amendment)Act, 1992
C. Constitution (Forty-second Amendment)Act, 1976
D. None of the above
Answer
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8. Article 371 of the Constitution of India provides special provision with respect to the States of:
A. Nagaland and Manipur
B. Mizoram and Nagaland
C. Meghalaya and Tripura
D. Maharashtra and Gujarat
Answer
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9. Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service Rules, 1975 have been enacted by the:
A. Governor of Uttar Pradesh exercising powers conferred by the proviso to Article 233 of the Constitution of India
B. Chief Justice of Allahabad High Court invoking powers under Article 235 of the Constitution of India
C. Governor of Uttar Pradesh invoking powers under Article 258-A of the Constitution of India
D. None of the above
Answer
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10. A peon working in a High Court may be dismissed from service without holding any inquiry as prescribed under Article 311 of the Constitution of India , where the:
A. Governor of Uttar Pradesh exercising powers conferred by the proviso to Article 233
B. Chief Justice of Allahabad High Court invoking powers under Article 235 of the Constitution of India
C. Governor of Uttar Pradesh invoking powers under Article 258-A of the Constitution of India
D. None of the above
Answer
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11. All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of:
A. Prime Minister of India
B. President of India
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. None of the above
Answer
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12. In which of the following cases, Supreme Court of India held that secularism is the basic feature of the Constitution of India:
A. M. Nagaraj and others Versus Union of India and others; AIR 2007 SC 71
B. V.K. Sasikala Versus State; AIR 2013 SC 613
C. S.R. Bommai and others Versus Union of India and others; AIR 1994 SC 1918
D. None of the above
Answer
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13. As per Article 156(3) of the Constitution of India:
A. Governor shall hold office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office
B. Prime Minister of India shall hold office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office
C. Vice President of India shall hold office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office
D. Chief Justice of India shall hold office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office
Answer
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14. Article 16 of the Constitution of India pertains to:
A. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth
B. Equality before law
C. Abolition of titles
D. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
Answer
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15. Whether the powers under Article 323-A of the Constitution of India can be exercised by appropriate legislature to constitute Administrative Tribunal:
A. Yes
B. Yes, if the Tribunal is to be constituted for adjudication of the matters relating to the State service
C. No
D. Yes, if the Tribunal is made for adjudication of service matters relating to educational disputes.
Answer
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16. By the constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019, which one of the following clauses was added to Article 16 of the Constitution of India:
A. Article 16 (6)
B. Article 16 (4-B)
C. Article 16 (5)
D. None of the above
Answer
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17. ‘A’ bequests certain property to ‘B’ having the fullest confidence that he will dispose of it for the benefit of ‘C’. This creates:
A. Partnership
B. Company
C. Trust
D. None of the above
Answer
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18. Ram, the owner of an agricultural field, grants a licence to Ramesh, to use a path across it. Ram with intent to revoke the licence locks a gate across the path. The licence is:
A. Suspended
B. revoked
C. continued
D. None of the above
Answer
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19. A licence is deemed to be revoked:
A. When, from a cause preceding the grant of it, the grantor ceases to have any interest in the property affected by the licence
B. When, the licensee releases it, expressly or impliedly, to the grantor or his representative
C. Where, it has been granted for a limited period, or acquired or condition that it shall become void on the performance or non-performance of a specific act, and the period expires, or the condition is fulfilled.
D. All of the above
Answer
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20. A witness, who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in writing in the open court; evidence so given shall be deemed to be:
A. Primary evidence
B. Secondary evidence
C. Documentary evidence
D. Oral evidence
Answer
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21. Dasti summons for service on the defendant can be given to the plaintiff under:
A. Order V Rule 9A, CPC
B. Order V Rule 9, CPC
C. Order IV Rule 7, CPC
D. Order IV Rule 6, CPC
Answer
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22. A proclamation under Section 82 of Cr.PC can be issued against a person against whom a warrant has been issued. Thus, a proclamation can be issued against:
A. Accused offender
B. A surety
C. A witness
D. All the above
Answer
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23. A notice under section 111 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 can be waived:
A. By express or implied consent of the person to whom it is given
B. By implied consent of the person to whom it is given
C. By express consent of the person to whom it is given
D. By notice from either party
Answer
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24. The period within the principle of Section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 shall commence from:
A. Date of receipt of notice
B. Date of issue of notice
C. Date of summoning of notice
D. 15 days from the expiry of notice
Answer
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25. The proceedings under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 shall be conducted in:
A. Open court
B. Camera
C. As per choice of the Presiding Officer
D. None of the above
Answer
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26. A decree for restitution of conjugal rights may be enforced:
A. By attachment of property
B. By injunction
C. By detention in civil prison
D. None of the above
Answer
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27. Secondary evidence includes:
A. Certified copies
B. Copies made from or compared with the original
C. Copies made from the original by mechanical process and copies compared with such copies
D. All the above
Answer
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28. The judgment delivered by a Court in cases of plea bargaining is:
A. Final
B. Appealable and appeal lies to the High Court
C. Final and no appeal except SLP under Article 136 and writ petition under Article 226 and 227
D. Appeal lies directly to the Supreme Court
Answer
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29. Any person born during the continance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man or within 280 days after its dissolution, the mother remaining unmarried shall be conclusive proof that he is the legitimate son of that man unless:
A. It can be proved that mother of child is characterless
B. It can be proved that marriage tie is not in existence
C. It can be shown that parties to the marriage had no access to each other at any time when he could have been begotten
D. Both (A) and (B)
Answer
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30. In order to present the petition for divorce by mutual consent under Section 13-B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the parties must be living separately for a period of:
A. Two years
B. One year
C. Three years
D. No limit
Answer
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91. In which of the following case(s) a dishonest misappropriation has NOT been committed :
1- "A" takes a book from his friend B's library for reading it overnight. 'B' was not present when 'A' took the book. The next day while coming to return the book "A" was tempted to see a movie but had no money, so he pawned the book to pay for the ticket
2. "A" and "B" where joint owners of a horse. "A" took the horse to another station for his exclusive use without informing "B". "A" did not return the horse and when it grew old sold it and pocketed the money.
3. "A" found a purse on the road, he picked it up and kept it in his pocket.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 alone
(d) 1,2 and 3
Answer
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32. A confession which is firstly made by accused but after sometime he goes back and denies, it is called:
A. Extra-judicial confession
B. Judicial confession
C. Retracted confession
D. Truncated confession
Answer
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33. ‘A’ has knocked down two teeth of ‘B’. In this case, ‘A’ has committed:
A. Mischief
B. Hurt
C. Grievous hurt
D. Criminal intimidation
Answer
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34. Where two or more Courts have the jurisdiction, the jurisdiction of a Civil Court under Section 20, C.P.C.:
A. Can be excluded by a clear agreement between the parties
B. Cannot be excluded under any circumstances
C. Can be excluded by a Court’s order
D. None of the above
Answer
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35. Whether Saptapadi is obligatory under Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act?:
A. Yes
B. No
C. Depends
D. None of the above
Answer
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36. Private alienation of property by the judgement-debtor after attachment under Section 64(1) of C.P.C. is:
A. Valid
B. Voidable
C. Void
D. Irregular
Answer
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37. A decree passed in a suit under Order XXXVII of C.P.C. without applying for leave defend may be set aside under:
A. Order IX, Rule 13 of C.P.C.
B. Order XXXVII, Rule 4 of C.P.C.
C. Order XXXVII, Rule 7 of C.P.C.
D. Either A or B or C
Answer
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38. Under Muslim Law, ‘Khula’and ‘Mubarat’are:
A. The forms of marriage
B. The forms of dissolution of marriage by agreement
C. The forms of repudiation of gift on attaining majority
D. The forms of demanding pre-emption
Answer
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39. On a busy junction of road, a huge poster/banner installed by an association is creating obstruction in traffic. Who from amongst the following, on having information, may remove such banner/poster by initiating proceedings under the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure:
A. The District Magistrate
B. The Chief Judicial Magistrate
C. The Sub Divisional Magistrate
D. The Collector
Answer
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40. Burden of proof under section 101 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
A. Goes on shifting as the trial proceeds
B. Never shifts
C. May shift
D. Both (A) and (B) are correct
Answer
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41. Islamic Law is called:
A. Hadith
B. Sharia
C. Ijma
D. Sunna
Answer
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42. Which of the following is correct statement insofar as Section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is concerned?
A. The suit has to be instituted in the Court of the lowest grade competent to try it
B. The suit has to be instituted in the Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction the defendant actually and voluntarily resides or carries on business or personally works or gain
C. The suit has to be instituted in the Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction, the cause of action wholly or in part arises
D. All the above are correct
Answer
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43. In which of the following cases, did the Supreme Court uphold the validity of the Code of Civil Procedure Amendment Act of 1999 and 2002?
A. Delhi H.C. Bar Association Versus UOI
B. Allahabad H.C. Bar Association Vs. UOI
C. Salem Advocate Bar Association Vs. UOI
D. Punjab and Haryana High Court Bar Association Vs. UOI
Answer
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44. Which of the following irregularities of a Magistrate, not empowered by law to do so, vitiates the proceedings?
A. To hold inquiry under Section 176 Code of Criminal Procedure
B. To make over a case under sub-Section (2) of Section 192 Code of Criminal Procedure
C. To take cognizance of an offence under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of Section 190 Code of Criminal Procedure
D. To tender pardon to accomplice under Section 306 Code of Criminal Procedure
Answer
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45. Which of the following is not a “document” as per provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
A. A map
B. Words lithographed
C. Inscription on a stone
D. A piece of metal with inscription that was used to cause fatal injury
Answer
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46. ‘A’ is a furniture producer at Saharanpur. ‘B’ carries on business at Varanasi. ‘B’ through his agent at Saharanpur, buys hundred chairs from ‘A’ and requires to deliver them to ‘C’ at Saharanpur. ‘B’ fails to pay the price of the chairs purchased:
A. ‘A’ may file suit only at Saharanpur
B. ‘A’ may file suit only at Varanasi
C. ‘A’ may file suit either in Saharanpur or at Varanasi
D. ‘A’ may file civil suit at Lucknow being capital of the Uttar Pradesh
Answer
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47. ‘A’ lets a premises to ‘B’ at a yearly rent of Rs. 50,000/-. The rent for whole of the years 2014, 2015, 2016 and 2017 is due and unpaid. ‘A’ sues ‘B’ in 2018 only for the rent due for 2014 and 2015:
A. ‘A’ by separate suit afterwards may sue ‘B’ for the rent due for 2016 and 2017
B. ‘A’ by separate suit cannot afterwards sue ‘B’ for the rent due for 2016 and 2017
C. ‘A’ by having leave from the Court sue ‘B’ afterwards for the rent due for 2016 and 2017
D. ‘A’ by consent of ‘B’ may sue ‘B’ afterwards for the rent due for 2016 and 2017
Answer
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48. No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. It is:
A. Fundamental Right
B. Directive Principle of such policy
C. Constitutional Rights
D. All the above
Answer
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49. In which of the following cases, decriminalizing homosexuality, the Supreme Court of India held that “consensual sexual acts between adults cannot be a crime:
A. Sakshi Versus Union of India
B. Naz Foundation (India) Trust Versus Suresh Kumar Koushal
C. Navtej Singh Johar Versus Union of India
D. Suresh Kumar Koushal Versus Naz Foundation (India) Trust
Answer
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50. The Supreme Court of India has laid down the law relating to Alternative Dispute Resolution process and Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure in the case of:
A. Dinesh Kumar Versus Yusuf Ali
B. Afcon Infrastructure Ltd. Versus Cherian Varkey Construction Co.
C. Bimlesh Versus New India Assurance Co.
D. Standard Chartered Band Versus V. Noble Kumar
Answer
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51. Under order XXXII Rule 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a next friend of a minor can be removed:
A. If he ceases to reside in India during the pendency of the suit
B. Where his interest becomes adverse to that of the minor
C. Where he does not do his duty
D. For any of the above reasons
Answer
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52. The Rule of “res ipsa loquitur” is related to the tort of:
A. Negligence
B. False imprisonment
C. Defamation
D. Malicious prosecution
Answer
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53. The prescribed period of limitation for preferring an appeal under Section 28 of the Hindu Marriage Act is:
A. Thirty days
B. Sixty days
C. Ninety days
D. One hundred & twenty days
Answer
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54. Where the prescribed period of limitation for any application is expiring on a holiday, the application:
A. Should be made a day prior to holiday
B. May be made on the day when the Court re-opens
C. May be made within thirty days of re-opening of the Court
D. May be made on any day after the Court re-opens
Answer
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55. ‘A’ sues ‘B’ for negligence in providing him with a carriage for hire not reasonably fit for use, whereby ‘A’ was injured. The fact that ‘B’ as habitually negligent about the carriages which let to hire is:
A. Relevant
B. Irrelevant
C. Neither relevant nor irrelevant
D. Relevant as well as irrelevant
Answer
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56. An accused in police custody, informs to the Station House Officer that the key by which he opened the safe and committed theft is kept by him in the patio of his house:. To what extent this information can be proved:
A. For committing an offence of theft
B. For opening lock of safe
C. For committing theft by opening safe and destroying evidence
D. For keeping the key in patio of house
Answer
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57. In a trial, while explaining any circumstances appearing in evidence against him, an accused of committing murder states that due to grave and sudden provocation he was deprived of the power of self-control and, thus, gave a single lathi blow to ‘A’, causing his death. The burden to prove grave and sudden provocation is on:
A. The prosecution
B. The Investigating Agency
C. The court
D. The accused
Answer
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58. During the course of trial of a rape case, a person present in Court causes a knife injury to another person the Court. The Judge before whom the incident took place:
A. May not be called in evidence
B. May be called in evidence only under special order of a higher court
C. May be examined as a witness
D. May be called in evidence, only if the trial of that incident is going on before a higher Court
Answer
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59. The offence affecting the socio-economic condition of the country, to which plea bargaining is not applicable, shall be notified by:
A. The State Government
B. The Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes Commission
C. The Human Rights Commission
D. The Central Government
Answer
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60. In a criminal trial, without producing the Chemical Examiner to the Government, the report given by him upon a thing duly submitted for analysis in the course of any proceeding under the Code of Criminal Procedure:
A. Cannot be used as evidence
B. Can be used as evidence only in summons cases
C. Can be used as evidence
D. Can be used only to refresh memory of the Investigating Officer coming in evidence
Answer
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61. In case tried by the court of Sessions or a Chief Judicial Magistrate, the Court or such Magistrate, as the case may be, shall forward a copy of its or his finding and sentence, if any, to:
A. The Superintendent of Police in the area of whom the crime concerned was committed
B. The Police Station that conducted the investigation of the crime concerned
C. The High Court to which the trial Court is subordinate
D. The District Magistrate within whose local jurisdiction the trial is held
Answer
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62. “Mens rea has no place while determining penal liability under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881”. This statement is:
A. Correct
B. Wrong
C. Partly correct
D. Depends upon facts of the case
Answer
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63. In view of Section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a lease of immovable property is a transfer of:
A. A right to enjoy such property in consideration of a price paid or promised or of money, a share of crops, service or any other thing of value
B. An interest in specific immovable property for securing the payment of money advanced
C. Ownership in consideration of price paid or promised
D. Certain immovable property, made voluntarily and without consideration
Answer
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64. ‘A’, a public servant, having charge of translation of a document, makes an incorrect translation of a document with an intent to cause injury to ‘B’. The offence committed by ‘A’ is:
A. Non-cognizable
B. Non-bailable
C. Non-compoundable
D. All the above
Answer
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65. ISRO means:
A. Indian Space Research Organization
B. Indian Satellite Regulatory Organization
C. Indian Satellite Research Organization
D. Indian Space Regulating Organization
Answer
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66. Shri Ram Nath Kovind is:
A. 15th President of India
B. 13th President of India
C. 14th President of India
D. 11th President of India
Answer
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67. Which of the following is complete set of SAARC Members:
A. Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka
B. Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Myanmar
C. Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Myanmar
D. None of the above
Answer
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68. The Original Constitution of India contains:
A. Several paintings created by a group of painters led by Raja Ravi Varma
B. Several paintings created by a group of painters led by S.H. Raza
C. Several paintings created by a group of painters led by Jamini Roy
D. Several paintings created by a group of painters led by Nandalal Bose
Answer
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69. “Brexit” is:
A. The scheduled withdrawal of the United Kingdom from European Union
B. The scheduled withdrawal of the Belgium from European Union
C. A famous Bollywood movie
D. None of the above
Answer
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70. Which of the following is also a name of Hindi movie:
A. Article 370
B. Article 15
C. Article 226
D. All the above
Answer
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71. Name of the author of “Rebel : A Biography of Ram Jethmalani:
A. Susan Adelman
B. Teesta Setalvad
C. Rani Jethmalani
D. Ram Jethmalani
Answer
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72. Who is the India’s permanent Envoy to United Nations?
A. Syed Akbaruddin
B. Nirupama Rao
C. Vijay Keshav Gokhale
D. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
Answer
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73. Hima Das is a famous:
A. Athlete
B. Cricketer
C. Painter
D. Actress
Answer
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74. The town of Pilibhit is famous for the production of:
A. Brass material
B. Fabric
C. Flutes
D. Glass articles
Answer
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75. The effect of notification under Section 6 of the U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 is:
A. Bringing an area under consolidation operation
B. Area ceases to be under consolidation operation
C. Declaratory suits shall stand abated
D. To confer power upon the authorities to enter upon and survey land covered by the notification
Answer
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76. The objections against Statement of Principles under the U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 are decided by:
A. Assistant Consolidation Officer
B. Consolidation Committee
C. Consolidation Officer
D. Land Management Committee
Answer
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77. Doctrine of constructive res-judicata is enshrined under which Section of the U.P. consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953:
A. Section 11-A
B. Section 11-C
C. Section 9-A
D. Section 12-A
Answer
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78. Which of these is incorrect –
Power of revision under Section 48 of the U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 can be exercised:
A. On application of aggrieved person
B. On reference by any subordinate authority
C. To correct error of law only
D. To correct error of law as well as fact
Answer
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79. Which building is not exempt from the provisions of U.P. Act No. 13 of 1972:
A. In occupation of government as tenant
B. Belonging to recognized educational institution
C. Vested in a waqf-alal-aulad
D. Cinema hall let out with plant and apparatus
Answer
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80. Tenant of a non-residential building covered by U.P. Act No. 13 of 1972 succeeds in getting possession of his own shop in same Municipality. It will result in:
A. Deemed vacancy of shop in his tenancy
B. Will become ground for ejectment under Section 20
C. His objection against application under Section 21 (1)(a) will not be considered
D. None of the above
Answer
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81. Notice under the first proviso to Section 21(1)(a) of U.P. Act No. 13 of 1972 is:
A. Mandatory and cannot be waived
B. Mandatory but can be waived
C. Directory
D. Directory and can be waived
Answer
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82. Major repairs can be carried out in tenanted premises covered by U.P. Act No. 13 of 1972 by a tenant to a maximum amount of rent equivalent to:
A. Six months
B. Two years
C. One year
D. None of the above
Answer
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83. A Gram Pradhan removed under Section 95 (1)(g) of the U.P. Panchayat Raj Act 1947 could be disqualified from contesting election of Gram Pradhan for a maximum period of:
A. Ten years
B. Two years
C. Five years
D. Seven years
Answer
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84. Which is incorrect –
A person cannot simultaneously hold the post of:
A. Pradhan and Member of Kshetra Panchayat
B. Member of Gram Panchayat and Adhyaksha of Cooperative Society
C. Member of Nyay Panchayat and Member of Zila Panchayat
D. Member of Gram Panchayat and Adhyaksha of Educational institution in the same Gram Panchayat
Answer
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85. In a meeting of Gram Sabha, a Pradhan can be removed by:
A. More than one half of the members of the Gram Sabha
B. Two-thirds of the members of the Gram Sabha
C. Two-thirds of the members of the Gram Sabha present and voting
D. Half of the members of the Gram Sabha present and voting
Answer
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86. Surcharge under Section 27 of the U.P. Panchayat Raj Act, 1947 is imposed in addition to:
A. Tax
B. Fees
C. Toll
D. None of the above
Answer
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87. Crops sown by ‘A’ in his field is destroyed by cattle belonging to ‘B’. ‘A’ can sue ‘B’ by bringing a claim before Nyay Panchayat within:
A. Three years
B. One year
C. Six months
D. Three months
Answer
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88. Recriminatory proceedings under the U.P. Municipalities Act, 1916 pertain to:
A. Criminal action against person guilty of committing offence under the Act
B. A candidate sought to be declared as returned candidate in an election petition
C. Recovery of amount due to a Municipality
D. Determination of reserved seats in a Municipality
Answer
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89. Electoral roll for a ward under the U.P. Municipalities Act, 1916 is revised:
A. Every ten years
B. Every five years
C. As and when directed by the State Government
D. None of the above
Answer
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90. Which order under the U.P. Municipalities Act, 1916 is appealable:
A. An order issuing a distress warrant
B. An order to sue for a demand
C. An order to close drain made in contravention of the bye-laws
D. An order imposing charge for the supply of water
Answer
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91. Which of the fees [(i) water fees (ii) stacking fees (iii) license fees (iv) development fees] a Development Authority is empowered to levy in a development area under the provisions of the U.P. Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973:
A. .i, iii, iv
B. .i, ii, iv
C. .ii, iii, iv
D. .i, ii, iii, iv
Answer
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92. A person taking vacant land on lease from Development Authority under the U.P. Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973 for making constructions if fails to make the same within the stipulated time and the extended time, the lease would be liable to cancellation after maximum period of:
A. 2 + 2 = 4 years
B. 5 + 5 = 10 years
C. 5 + 1 = 6 years
D. None of these
Answer
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93. Power to order demolition under Section 27 of the U.P. Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973 can be delegated by:
A. State Government
B. Chairman
C. Vice Chairman
D. None of the above
Answer
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94. Which one is correct –
Boundary dispute is decided under Section 24 of the U.P. Revenue Code, 2006 on basis of:
A. Existing survey maps
B. Revised maps prepared under the U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953
C. Actual possession
D. Title
Answer
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95. What is the limitation for entertaining an application under Section 66 of the U.P. Revenue Code, 2006 for cancellation of allotment:
A. Five years
B. Four years
C. Six years
D. None of the above
Answer
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96. What is the remedy available under the U.P. Revenue Code, 2006 to a person aggrieved by illegal encroachment of Gaon Sabha land:
A. To approach Assistant Collector under Section 67
B. To approach Collector under Section 66
C. To approach Sub Divisional Officer under Section 63
D. To approach State Government under Section 70
Answer
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97. If a bhumidhar transfers possession of any holding for securing loan or money advanced, it will be:
A. Usufructuary mortgage
B. Simple mortgage
C. Illegal and void
D. Sale of bhumidhari rights in the land
Answer
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98. Against order under Section 67 of the U.P. Revenue Code, 2006, appeal lies to the:
A. Commissioner
B. Collector
C. Assistant Collector
D. Board of Revenue
Answer
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99. In a suit for ejectment under Section 134 of the U.P. Revenue Code, 2006, which of the following is not a necessary party:
A. Person in illegal possession
B. Gaon Sabha
C. Collector
D. State Government
Answer
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100. A bhumidhar dies intestate. Who amongst the following will inherit the property in preference to the others:
A. Married daughter
B. Son’s daughter
C. Daughter’s son
D. Sister’s son
Answer
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