UPHJS2012 Edit
1. El Nino associated with the formation of Southwest Monsoon of India is-
(A) Abnormally warm ocean current
(B) Periodic Warm Airmass
(C) Periodic Warm Wind
(D) Periodic Low Pressure Cente

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2. In Hindustani classical music "Rag Bhairvi" is sung during-
(A) early morning
(B) late evening
(C) midnight
(D) afternoon

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3. Which of the following High Courts has the largest number of Benches?
(A) Calcutta
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Bombay
(D) Guahati

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4. Who was the first Chief Justice of Independent India?
(A) Justice P.B. Gajendragadkar
(B) Justice H.R. Khanna
(C) Justice K. Subba Rao
(D) Justice H.J. Kania

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5. Who is associated with drafting of Indian Penal Code?
(A) Lord Macaulay
(B) Mullah
(C) Sir H.S. Mayne
(D) Frederick Pollock

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6. Which one of the following countries has the largest Muslim population?
(A) Bangla Desh
(B) Pakistan
(C) India
(D) Indonesia

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7. Potassium Permanganate is used for purifying drinking water because-
(A) it is sterilizing agent
(B) it dissolves the impurities of water
(C) it is a reducing agent
(D) it is an oxidizing agent

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8. Which one of the following is the newest substance being used in the production of computer chip?
(A) Silicon
(B) Carbon
(C) Gallium Silicate
(D) Gallium Arsenide

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9. "Before Memory Fades" : an Autobiography is written by-
(A) Nani Palkhivala
(B) Fali S. Nariman
(C) Archna Upadhyay
(D) Vikram Seth

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10. To qualify as a National Political Party, a political party has to fulfill which of the following conditions?
(A) it has to win assembly seats at least in three States
(B) it has to receive 4% of the total votes polled in 2 or more States
(C) it has to receive 6 % of the total votes share in four or more States
(D) None of the above

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11. Recently which country has severed all its ties with United Nations Human Rights Council?
(A) Syria
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Israel
(D) Russia

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12. Entomology is a science related to-
(A) Fishes
(B) Insects
(C) Reptiles
(D) Mammals

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13. Thesaurus is associated with-
(A) study of religion
(B)study of God
(C) study of earth
(D) study of words

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14. Tejaswani Sawant is the First Indian Woman to be crowned world champion in-
(A) Boxing
(B) Shooting
(C) Athletics
(D) Wrestling

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15. During sleep the blood pressure of a man-
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) fluctuates
(D) remains constant

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16. Tides in the ocean occur due to-
(A) attraction of the moon
(B) attraction of the sun
(C) both (A) & (B)
(D) spherical shape of the earth

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17. The Nilekani panel set up in February 2011 recently submitted its report on-
(A) inflation control
(B) Lokpal Institution
(C) Public Distribution System
(D) Price-mechanism

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18. Red blood cells are formed in which part of our body?
(A) Liver
(B) Heart
(C) Bone marrow
(D) Kidney

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19. What is the name of the first indigenously developed super computer of India?
(A) Tejas
(B) Anupam
(C) Aryabhatt
(D) Param

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20. Which one of the following is correct Hindi translation of word "revoke"?
(A) प्रत्याहरण
(B) प्रतिसंहरण
(C) प्रत्यावर्तन
(D) अपवर्तन

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21. The Supreme Court through which of the following judicial pronouncements has made all marriages compulsorily registrable?
(A) Zahira Sheikh Vs. State of Gujarat (2004) 4 SCC 158
(B) Vishaka Vs. State of Rajasthan (1997) 6 SCC 241
(C) Mohammad Ahmad Khan Vs. Shah Bano Begum (1985) 2 SCC 556
(D) Smt. Seema Vs. Ashwani Kumar (2006) 2 SCC 578

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22. Special Leave to Appeal under Article 136 of the Constitution of India may be granted by Supreme Court-
(A) only against the orders and judgments of the High courts
(B) from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order under any cause or matter passed or made by any court or Tribunal in territory of India
(C) against any appellate order or judgment passed by the Courts or Tribunal in India
(D) against the order or judgment of the High Court passed only in Public Interest Litigation.

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23. Which jurisdiction of the Supreme Court has been dealt with in Article 143 of the Constitution of India?
(A) Appellate
(B) Writ
(C) Original
(D) None of the above

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24. The prohibition regarding discussion in Parliament with regard to conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of the High Court in discharge of his duties is contained in Article-
(A) 121
(B) 211
(C) 124
(D) None of the above .

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25. The freedom of Press in India is-
(A) available to the people under the laws of the Parliament
(B) specifically provided in the Constitution of India
(C) implied in the right of freedom of expression
(D) available to the people under executive orders.

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26. The District Judge can be given power to issue prerogative writs by-
(A) order of Supreme Court under Article 141 of the Constitution of India
(B) Executive Orders issued by the Governor in consultation with the High Court under Article 162 of the Constitution of India.
(C) the Parliament by law under Article 32 of the Constitution of India.
(D) the High Court by a decision of Full Court.

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27. Which of the following is not included in Electoral college for electing president?
(A) Elected members of the Rajya Sabha
(B) Elected Members of the Legislative Assembly of the State
(C) Elected Members of the Legislative Council
(D) Elected members of the Lok Sabha.

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28. 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India contains-
(A) powers, authorities and responsibilities of the municipalities endowed to it by State Legislature
(B) powers, authorities and responsibilities of Panchayat endowed to it by Parliament
(C) powers, authorities and responsibilities which any local Government can exercise.
(D) powers, authorities and responsibilities endowed to Panchayat by State Legislature.

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29. Members of Legislative Bodies enjoy privilege of exemption from arrest or detention in prison-
(A) only under Civil process and during the continuance of a joint sit ing/ meeting/ conference or joint committee of Houses of Parliament or Houses of State Legislature as the case may be and during 40 days before and after such sitting/ meeting/ comference
(B) under Civil as well as Criminal process and as all times save with the permission of the Speaker or the Chairperson as the case may be.
(C) under Civil as well as Criminal process but only when the house is in session
(D) do not enjoy any such exemption.

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30. How many members can be nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor?
(A) 1/6th
(B) 1/12th
(C) 1/3rd
(D) 1/9th

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31. Which of the following is not an essential requisite for creating a partnership as per Section 4 of the Partnership Act?
(A) An agreement to carry on a business
(B) Sharing of profits
(C) Sharing of losses
(D) Business to be carried by all or any of them acting for all.

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32. In case of adoption of a son by a Hindu male, the son must be-
(A) less than twenty one years of age
(B) less than eighteen years of age
(C) less than fifteen years of age
(D) less than nine years of age.

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33. Adoption is not recognized under the-
(A) Muhammadan law
(B) Parsi law
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B).

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34. Parties by their consent/ agreement-
(A) can confer jurisdiction on a court where there is none in law
(B) can oust the jurisdiction of a court when there is one in law
(C) can oust the jurisdiction of one of the courts when there are two courts having simultaneous jurisdiction in law
(D) All the above.

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35. A pleader has a duty to inform the court about the death of parties under-
(A) Order 22 Rule 1 C.P.C.
(B) Order 22 Rule 4 C.RC.
(C) Order 22 Rule 8 C.P.C.
(D) Order 22 Rule 10A C.P.C.

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36. Which is correct?
(A) Proposal+acceptance = promise
(B) Promise+ consideration = agreement
(C) agreement+enforceability = contract
(D) All the above.

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37. A contract which is valid initially however, ceases to be enforceable subsequently, the contract-
(A) remains valid
(B) becomes voidable when it ceases to be enforceable
(C) becomes void when it ceases to be enforceable
(D) becomes void since inception.

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38. ‘A’ transfers property to ‘B’ for life and after his death to ‘C, and ‘D’, equally to be divided between them or to the survivors of them. ‘C’ dies during the life time of ‘B’. ‘D’ survives ‘B’. At B’s death the property-
(A) shall pass to D
(B) shall pass to D and survivors of C
(C) the transfer becomes void at the death of C during B’s lifetime
(D) None of the above.

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39. A settlement made to defeat and defraud creditors is voidable under which section of the Transfer of Property Act?
(A) Section 52
(B) Section 53
(C) Section 54
(D) Section 55.

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40. Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act declares as void agreement-
(A) in restraint of marriage
(B) in restraint of legal proceedings
(C) in restraint of trade
(D) None of the above.

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41. In pari delicto” means-
(A) where parents are at fault
(B) in case of equal fault or guilt
(C) a person with guilty mind
(D) a delinquent criminal

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42. Which of the following mode of transfer of property is not covered by Transfer of Property Act, 1882-
(A) Sale
(B) Mortgage
(C) Testamentary disposition
(D) Exchange.

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43. According to Section 18 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the provisions of some sections shall not apply in the case of a transfer of property for the benefit of the public in the advancement of religion, knowledge, commerce, health safety or any other object beneficial to mankind. These sections are-
(A) 13,14,15&16
(B) 14,16&17
(C) 14,16,17 &18
(D) 14,15 & 20.

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44. The leading case of Hindu husband’s entering second marriage on conversion to islam is-
(A) Mohini Jam’s case, 1992(3) SCC 666
(B) Daniel Latifi’s case, 2001(7) SCC 740
(C) Saila Mudgal’s case, 1995(3) SCC 635
(D) Shah Bano’s case, 1985(2) SCC 556.

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45. For a valid Muslim marriage-
(A) offer and acceptance must be at the same time
(B) offer and acceptance must be at the same place
(C) offer and acceptance must be at the same time and same place
(D) offer and acceptance may be at different times and at different places.

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46. A suit for recovery of possession of an immovable property under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act can be filed against
(A) a private individual only
(B) a government
(C) both a private individual and a government
(D) neither (A) nor (B).

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47. The trustee has no right to be reimbursed for-
(A) the expenses made by him for improvement of the property
(B) the expenses reasonably necessary to the due administration of the trust
(C) the preservation of the trust property
(D) the protection of rights of beneficiaries.

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48. "Professional Communication" between Advocate and his client-
(A) is not admissible in evidence
(B) is a privilege communication only until the contract continues
(C) is admissible in evidence with consent of the client
(D) is not admissible until it is legal.

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49. Remedies available against an ex-parte decree include-
(A) appeal
(B) review
(C) application for setting aside the decree
(D) All the above.

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50. Who amongst the following is not a ‘public officer’ within the meaning of section 2(17) of CPC?
(A) A Judge
(B) A person in service under the pay of Government
(C) Sarpanch of a Gram Panchayat
(D) None of the above.

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51. A Garnishee order is an order-
(A) prohibiting the judgment debtor’s debtor from making any payment to the judgment debtor
(B) directing the decree holder to take the payment from the judgment debtor’s debtor
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above.

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52. Preliminary decree can be passed in a suit-
(A) for partition
(B) of partnership
(C) for possession and mesne profits
(D) All the above.

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53. Order XXVI, Rule 4A C.P.C., empowers the court to issue commission in a suit for examination of a person-
(A) resident within the local limits of its jurisdiction ‘
(B) resident beyond the local limits of its jurisdiction
(C) who is about to leave the local limits of its jurisdiction
(D) Both (A) and (B).

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54. A suit for compensation for wrong done to the person or to moveable property, where the wrong was done within the local jurisdiction of one court and the defendant resides within the local limits of another court
(A) can be instituted in the court within whose local jurisdiction the wrong has been committed
(B) can be instituted in the court within whose local jurisdiction the defendant resides
(C) Either (A) or (B) at the option of the plaintiff
(D) can be instituted anywhere in India.

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55. Compounding of an offence will result in-
(A) acquittal
(B) discharge
(C) compromise
(D) conviction.

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56. In a summary trial maximum punishment of imprisonment can be-
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 1 year
(D) 2 years.

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57. Period of appearance for proclamation issued under Section 82 of Cr.P.C. is not less than-
(A) 15 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 60 days
(D) 90 days.

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58. A revision can be filed against an order passed by Sub Divisional Magistrate under Section 145(6) of Cr.P.C. in the court of-
(A) District Magistrate
(B) ADM (Administration)
(C) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(D) Sessions Judge.

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59. An offence of theft can be tried by a court under whose jurisdiction-
(A) the theft has been committed
(B) the stolen property is found in possession of thief
(C) the stolen property is kept by the accused knowing it to be stolen
(D) Any of the above.

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60. If an offence is punishable with fine only then the limitation for taking cognizance will be-
(A) 6 months
(B) 1 year
(C) 2 years
(D) 3 years.

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61. A Magistrate convicts an accused of theft for one year imprisonment and one thousand fine. Maximum punishment for which accused can be sentenced to imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall be-
(A) 1 year
(B) 9 months
(C) 3 months
(D) 6 months

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62. A Magistrate may not remand the accused to police custody for-
(A) more than 24 hours
(B) more than 7 days
(C) more than 14 days
(D) more than 15 days

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63. Presumption under the law of evidence are-
(A) presumption of facts
(B) presumptions of law
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Only (B) and not (A).

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64. A leading question can be asked in-
(A) examination-in-chief
(B) cross-examination
(C) re-examination
(D) All of the above.

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65. Under Section 145 of the Evidence Act a witness may be cross examined as to previous statement in writing
(A) after proving the same and showing the same to the witness
(B) without proving the same but only after showing the same to the witness
(C) after proving the same and reading the same to the witness
(D) without proving the same and without showing the same to the witness.

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66. A witness summoned to produce a document can refuse to bring it before the court on the ground that-
(A) the record in question is unpublished record
(B) the record in question relates to an affair of State
(C) the record is admissible
(D) None of the above.

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67. The opinion of expert may be obtained under Section 40 of the Evidence Act in relation to-
(A) Science, Art, Law, Finger impression and handwriting/signature
(B) Science including medical matters, Art, Law, Finger impression and handwriting
(C) Science, including medical matters, Art, Law, Finger impression, handwriting and signatures
(D) Science, Art, Foreign law, Finger impression and handwriting/signature. —

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68. In criminal cases previous bad character of accused is-
(A) relevant
(B) always irrelevant
(C) relevant when evidence has been given that he has a good character
(D) relevant when evidence has been given that he has a good character and when bad character is itself in issue.

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69. Under Section 372 of Cr.P.C. a victim-
(A) can file an appeal against the order of acquittal
(B) can file an appeal only after obtaining leave from the appellate court
(C) has no right to file an appeal
(D) should approach the District Magistrate and Public Prosecutor for filing an appeal.

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70. A non confessional statement recorded under Section 164 of Cr.RC..
(A) is a substantive piece of evidence
(B) is not a substantive piece of evidence
(C) may or may not be substantive evidence depending upon the facts and cicumstances
(D) None of the above.

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71. A joint statement of several witnesses recorded during investigation-
(A) will render these persons as incompetent witnesses
(B) will render their statement as inadmissible
(C) will neither render these persons as incompetent witnesses nor their evidence as inadmissible
(D) will render these persons as incompetent witnesses as well as their evidence as inadmissible.

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72. For an offence punishable with three years imprisonment the limitation prescribed under Cr.P.C. is-
(A) 6 months
(B) 1 year
(C) 3 years
(D) None of the above.

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73. An order passed under Section 125 of Cr.RC. can be challenged by the unsuccessful party by filing a revision-
(A) only before Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) only before Sessions Judge
(C) only before High Court
(D) Either before the Sessions Judge or High Court.

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74. In case of merger of the complaint with the police report, the procedure to be followed for the trial-
(A) shall be of the complaint case
(B) shall be of the case instituted on the police report
(C) shall be of both as per convenience during the trial
(D) shall be the one as directed by the Magistrate.

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75. Power under Section 319 of Cr.RC. can be exercised-
(A) by the Magistrate and the Court of Sessions both only after recording of evidence during the inquiry or trial
(B) by the Magistrate before recording of evidence but by the Court of Sessions only after recording of evidence
(C) by The Magistrate and the Court of Sessions both even before recording of evidence
(D) . by the Magistrate only after recording evidence but by the Court of Sessions before recording of evidence.

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76. ‘A’ and ‘B’ were about to travel from Allahabad to Delhi by the same train. ‘B’ had two tickets from Allahabad to Aligarh and ‘A’ had a ticket from Allahabad to Delhi ‘A’ voluntarily handed over his ticket to ‘B’ in order to check that it was the right one; ‘B’ under the pretence of returning ‘A’s ticket substituted it by one of his own and kept ‘A’s ticket. What offence did ‘B’ commit?
(A) Theft
(B) Extortion
(C) Criminal misappropriation
(D) Cheating.

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77. Section 73 of the I.P.C. provides for the maximum limit of solitary confinement to be-
(A) one year
(B) two years
(C) three months
(D) six months.

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78. If the offence is punishable with fine only, the imprisonment which the court imposes in default of payment of the fine shall be-
(A) only simple
(B) only rigorous
(C) either simple or rigorous
(D) None of the above

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79. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is-
(A) under 7 years of age
(B) under 14 years of age
(C) under 14 years of age
(D) under 16 years of age

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80. Which one of the following statements is not true?
(A) For an unlawful assembly the number of persons must be five or more.
(B) Mere presence of a person at the scene of offence does not make him a member of an unlawful assembly.
(C) An assembly which was not unlawful when it assembled may subsequently become an unlawful assembly.
(D) When the accused persons are charged for committing mischief and for rioting separately, the acquittal from charge of mischief would entail automatically acquittal from charge of rioting.

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81. The accused inflicted injuries on non-vital parts of the deceased which were not found to be sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death but it was proved that he inflicted the injuries with a nowledge that with these injuries the victim was likely to die. The case would be punishable under section-
(A) 302 I.P.C.
(B) 303 I.P.C.
(C) 304 Part I I.P.C.
(D) 304 Part II I.P.C.

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82. The termination of pregnancy will attract penal provisions of Section 312 I.P.C. if it is done-
(A) to prevent injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman
(B) in view of the substantial risk that if the child is born it would suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped
(C) as the pregnancy is alleged by pregnant woman to have been caused by rape
(D) None of the above.

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83. Which kind of hurt is not grievous?
(A) Any hurt which endangers life.
(B) Any hurt which causes the sufferer to be during the space of 15 days in severe bodily pain.
(C) Permanent privation of the sight of either eye.
(D) Privation of any member or joint.

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84. ‘A’ finds a ring belonging to ‘Z’ on a table in the house which ‘Y’ occupies . A dishonestly removes the ring. A has committed which of the following offence?
(A) Criminal breach of trust
(B) Criminal misappropriation of property
(C) Theft
(D) Dishonestly receiving stolen property.

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85. Theory of retribution-
(A) is a theory in which exemplary punishment shall be given to criminal
(B) is a theory that a criminal should be punished in proportion to his offence
(C) is a theory in which the criminal must be reformed
(D) is a theory in which criminal should be sent to open jail.

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86. ‘A’ is a good swimmer looks ‘B’ drowning but does not try to save ‘A’. ‘A’ has committed the offence of-
(A) murder
(B) culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) causing death due to negligent act.
(D) not committed any offence.

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87. In which of the following sections of U.R Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1955, a revenue court can grant injunction?
(A) Section 229-A
(B) Section 229-B
(C) Section 229-C
(D) Section 229-D.

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88. Re-possession of the leased land after eviction is punishable under which Section of the U.R Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act?
(A) 115-C
(B) 122-F
(C) 198-A
(D) 209.

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89. Section 11A of the UP. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 bars-
(A) a fresh suit before civil Court
(B) a fresh suit before revenue court
(C) objection pertaining to title
(D) objection pertaining to allotment of chaks.

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90. Section 52-A of the U.R Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 empowers the-
(A) Director of Consolidation to make provisions for chak roads or chak guls
(B) Deputy Director of Consolidation to provide for chak roads or chak guIs
(C) Collector to provide for chak roads or chak guls
(D) Settlement Officer Consolidation to provide for chak roads or chak guls.

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91. Against an arder of release passed by the District Magistrate under section 16 of U.R Urban Buildings (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972-
(A) an appeal is maintainable before the District Judge
(B) an appeal is maintainable before the Commissioner
(C) the revision is maintainable before the District Judge
(D) the revision is maintainable before the High Court.

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92.. Under Section 24 of the U.P. Urban Buildings (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972 a tenant has option of re-entry-
(A ) when the tenant has been evicted on a suit filed by landlord for eviction on any of the grounds as mentioned under sub section (4) of Section 20 of the Act
(B) when the tenant vacates the premises on a promise made by landlord to permit re-entry after reconstruction of the building
(C) when the landlord after release under section 21(1) (b) of the Act demolishes the building and constructs new building
(D) when the tenant vacates the premises temporarily.

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UPHJS2012 Edit
93. An elected member of the municipal board can be removed by-
(A) a resolution passed by municipal board by simple majority
(B) a resolution passed by municipal board by 2/3rd majority
(C) an order passed by the State Government
(D) an order passed by the President of the Municipal Board.

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UPHJS2012 Edit
94. The Gram Sabha under the U.R Panchayat Raj Act, 1947 means-
(A) a body consisting of all adult males residing in Gram Sabha
(B) a body consisting of all adult males and females residing in Gram Sabha
(C) a body consisting of all the persons registered in the electoral rolls
(D) a body consisting of all inhabitants residing in Gram Sabha.

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UPHJS2012 Edit
95. The Development Authority under the U.R Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973 can make any amendment in the zonal development plan as it thinks fit-
(A) which amendments in its opinion effect important alterations in the character of the plan
(B) which amendments in its opinion relate to the extent of the land uses
(C) which amendments in its opinion do not relate to the standards or population density
(D) which amendments in its opinion relate to the standards or population density.

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UPHJS2012 Edit
96. What is the maximum area which can be allotted to an agricultural labourer of the of the village for abadi site under the U.P.Z.A. & L.R. Rules, 1952?
(A) 100 square meters
(B) 250 square meters
(C) 50 square meters
(D) No maximum limit prescribed.

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UPHJS2012 Edit
97. When a female bhumidhar or asami other than a bhumidhar or asami mentioned in Sections 171&172 of the U.R Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act dies, her interest in the holding shall devolve on which of her following heirs, first to the exclusion of others-
(A) Sister’s son
(B) Sister
(C) Brother
(D) Brother’s son.

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UPHJS2012 Edit

98. Where the office of Pradhan is vacant by resignation of previous incumbent, which of the following procedures be adopted for discharging the duties of Pradhan?
(A) The Gram Sabha shall pass a resolution by 2/3rd majority electing any other person to discharge the duties of Pradhan
(B) The Gram Panchayat shall pass a resolution electing any member of Gram Panchayat to act as Pradhan
(C) The Up-Pradhan shall discharge duties of Pradhan till fresh election is held for the office of Pradhan
(D) The prescribed authority shall nominate a member of the Gram Panchayat to discharge the duties of Pradhan.

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UPHJS2012 Edit

99. A bhumidhar or asami belonging to Scheduled Tribes can transfer any land by way of lease to a person belonging to which of the following categories?
(A) A person belonging to Scheduled Castes
(B) A person not belonging to Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes with prior permission of Assistant Collector First Class
(C) A person belonging to Scheduled Castes with the permission of Assistant Collector.
(D) A person belonging to Scheduled Tribes.

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UPHJS2012 Edit
100. By-laws of a Municipal Board can be framed in which of following manners? .
(A) The State Government shall frame by-laws for the Municipal Board.
(B) The by-laws of the Municipal Board can be framed by passing a resolution by the Municipal Board.
(C) The by-laws can be framed by Municipality only by a special resolution after previous publication.
(D) The by-law can be framed by the President of the Municipal Board

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